Говорение егэ английский овз

МОДУЛЬ 4. ОСОБЕННОСТИ ПРОВЕДЕНИЯ ЕГЭ ПО ИНОСТРАННЫМ ЯЗЫКАМ (РАЗДЕЛ

«ГОВОРЕНИЕ») ОТВЕТЫ

1. Продолжительность выполнения экзаменационной работы по иностранным

языкам (раздел «Говорение»), кроме китайского языка, составляет:

A. 15 минут

B. 20 минут

C. 30 минут

2. При проведении ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам (раздел «Говорение») в аудитории

подготовки заранее должны быть подготовлены материалы, которые могут

использовать участники экзамена в период ожидания своей очереди:

A. Научнопопулярные журналы, любые книги, журналы, газеты только на русском языке

B. Научнопопулярные журналы, любые книги, журналы, газеты только на языке проводимого

экзамена

C. В период ожидания своей очереди участники экзамена не могут использовать никакие

материалы

3. В случае неудовлетворительной записи ответа при выполнении устной части

ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам участник экзамена:

A. Направляется в другую аудиторию для сдачи экзамена

B. Оформляется апелляция и участник направляется на пересдачу в резервный день по

решению ГЭК

C. Направляется в другой ППЭ для сдачи экзамена

4. Какие типы аудиторий используются для проведения устной части ЕГЭ по

иностранным языкам?

A. Аудитории подготовки и аудитории проведения

B. Аудитории ожидания, аудитории подготовки и аудитории проведения

C. Только аудитории проведения

5. На какое время увеличивается продолжительность проведения ЕГЭ по

иностранным языкам (раздел «Говорение») для участников с ОВЗ, детей

инвалидов, инвалидов, обучающихся на дому и в санаторнокурортных

образовательных организациях?

A. На 30 минут

B. На 1 час

C. На 1,5 часа

6. В каком виде в ППЭ для проведения устной части ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам

поступают ЭМ?

A. КИМ на диске, бланки регистрации– в бумажном виде

B. КИМ и бланки регистрации на одном электронном носителе

УЧАСТНИКИ С ОВЗ, ДЕТИ-ИНВАЛИДЫ И ИНВАЛИДЫ

1. Нормативные правовые документы, регламентирующие порядок проведения ГИА для лиц с ОВЗ, детей-инвалидов и инвалидов:

  • Федеральный закон от 29.12.2012 № 273-ФЗ «Об образовании в Российской Федерации»;
  • Приказ Минпросвещения России и Рособрнадзора от 07.11.2018 № 190/1512 «Об утверждении Порядка проведения государственной итоговой аттестации по образовательным программам среднего общего образования» (зарегистрирован Минюстом России 10.12.2018, регистрационный № 52952);
  • Методические рекомендации по организации и проведению государственной итоговой аттестации  по образовательным программам основного общего и среднего общего образования в форме основного государственного экзамена и единого государственного экзамена для лиц с ограниченными возможностями здоровья, детей-инвалидов и инвалидов

2. Допуск к ГИА

К ГИА допускаются обучающиеся, не имеющие академической задолженности, в том числе за итоговое сочинение (изложение), и в полном объеме выполнившие учебный план или индивидуальный учебный план (имеющие годовые отметки по всем учебным предметам учебного плана за каждый год обучения по образовательной программе среднего общего образования не ниже удовлетворительных).

Лица с ОВЗ, дети-инвалиды и инвалиды имеют право писать как итоговое сочинение, так и изложение (при этом время увеличивается на 1,5 часа).

Результаты итогового сочинения учитываются по усмотрению вуза.

Результаты изложения вузом не учитываются.

Итоговое сочинение (изложение) проводится в условиях, учитывающих состояние их здоровья. Для лиц, имеющих медицинские показания для обучения на дому и соответствующие рекомендации психолого-медико-педагогической комиссии, итоговое сочинение (изложение) организуется на дому (или в медицинском учреждении).

Проведение итогового сочинения (изложения) регулируется Порядком проведения государственной итоговой аттестации по образовательным программам среднего общего образования, утвержденным Приказом Минпросвещения России и Рособрнадзора от 07.11.2018 № 190/1512 «Об утверждении Порядка проведения государственной итоговой аттестации по образовательным программам среднего общего образования» (зарегистрирован Минюстом России 10.12.2018, регистрационный № 52952) и Методическими рекомендациями по подготовке и проведению итогового сочинения (изложения). 

3. Необходимые документы для предоставления особых условий

Обучающиеся, выпускники прошлых лет с ОВЗ при подаче заявления предъявляют копию рекомендаций психолого-медико-педагогической комиссии (ПМПК).

Обучающиеся, выпускники прошлых лет дети-инвалиды и инвалиды — оригинал или заверенную в установленном порядке копию справки, подтверждающей факт установления инвалидности, выданной федеральным государственным учреждением медико-социальной экспертизы (далее – Справка ФГУ МСЭ).

В заявлении обучающиеся указывают специальные условия, учитывающие состояние их здоровья, особенности психофизического развития.

4. Форма ГИА

Обучающиеся с ограниченными возможностями здоровья, обучающиеся дети-инвалиды и инвалиды по образовательным программам среднего общего образования могут добровольно выбрать форму ГИА (единый государственный экзамен (ЕГЭ) или государственный выпускной экзамен (ГВЭ)).

Результаты ГВЭ, в отличие от результатов ЕГЭ, не учитываются при поступлении в вузы, а засчитываются только как итоги государственной итоговой аттестации. Поступить в вуз обучающиеся, сдававшие ГВЭ, смогут по результатам вступительных испытаний, форму и перечень которых определяются образовательной организацией высшего образования.

5. Продолжительность ГИА

Продолжительность экзамена для данных лиц увеличивается на 1,5 часа (за исключением ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам (раздел «Говорение»).

Продолжительность ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам (раздел «Говорение») увеличивается на 30 минут.

6. Условия проведения ГИА

Материально-технические условия проведения экзамена обеспечивают возможность беспрепятственного доступа таких обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет в аудитории, туалетные и иные помещения, а также их пребывания в указанных помещениях (наличие пандусов, поручней, расширенных дверных проемов, лифтов, при отсутствии лифтов аудитория располагается на первом этаже; наличие специальных кресел и других приспособлений).

При проведении экзамена присутствуют ассистенты, оказывающие указанным обучающимся, выпускникам прошлых лет необходимую техническую помощь с учетом их индивидуальных возможностей, помогающие им занять рабочее место, передвигаться, прочитать задание.

Указанные обучающиеся, выпускники прошлых лет с учетом их индивидуальных возможностей пользуются в процессе сдачи экзамена необходимыми им техническими средствами.

ГВЭ по всем учебным предметам по их желанию проводится в устной форме.

Для слабослышащих обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет аудитории для проведения экзамена оборудуются звукоусиливающей аппаратурой как коллективного, так и индивидуального пользования.

Для глухих и слабослышащих обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет при необходимости привлекается ассистент-сурдопереводчик.

Для слепых обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет:

  • экзаменационные материалы оформляются рельефно-точечным шрифтом Брайля или в виде электронного документа, доступного с помощью компьютера;
  • письменная экзаменационная работа выполняется рельефно-точечным шрифтом Брайля или на компьютере;
  • предусматривается достаточное количество специальных принадлежностей для оформления ответов рельефно-точечным шрифтом Брайля, компьютер. 

Для слабовидящих обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет экзаменационные материалы копируются в увеличенном размере, в аудиториях для проведения экзаменов предусматривается наличие увеличительных устройств и индивидуальное равномерное освещение не менее 300 люкс.

Для обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет с нарушением опорно-двигательного аппарата письменная экзаменационная работа может выполняться на компьютере со специализированным программным обеспечением.

Во время проведения экзамена для указанных обучающихся, выпускников прошлых лет организуются питание и перерывы для проведения необходимых лечебных и профилактических мероприятий.

Для лиц, имеющих медицинские показания для обучения на дому и соответствующие рекомендации психолого-медико-педагогической комиссии, экзамен организуется на дому. 

6. Особенности рассмотрения апелляций участников ГИА с ОВЗ

Для рассмотрения апелляций участников ГИА с ОВЗ, детей-инвалидов и инвалидов КК привлекает к своей работе тифлопереводчиков (для рассмотрения апелляций слепых участников ГИА), сурдопереводчиков (для рассмотрения апелляций глухих участников ГИА).

Вместе с участником ГИА с ОВЗ, ребенком — инвалидом, инвалидом на рассмотрении его апелляции помимо родителей (законных представителей) может присутствовать ассистент.

В случае обнаружения КК ошибки в переносе ответов слепых или слабовидящих участников ГИА на бланки ГИА конфликтная комиссия учитывает данные ошибки как технический брак. Экзаменационные работы таких участников ГИА проходят повторную обработку (включая перенос на бланки ГИА стандартного размера) и, при необходимости, повторную проверку экспертами.

Заявление на ГИА (ОВЗ)

Заявление на ИС-9 (ОВЗ)

Заявление на сочинение-изложение (ОВЗ)

ГИА-11

Сборник тренировочных материалов по АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ

Сборник тренировочных материалов для подготовки
к государственной итоговой аттестации по АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ
для слепых и поздноослепших обучающихся

по образовательным программам

СРЕДНЕГО общего образования

ПОЯСНИТЕЛЬНАЯ ЗАПИСКА

Тренировочные материалы предназначены для подготовки к единому  государственному экзамену и государственному выпускному экзамену
(в письменной форме) по АНГЛИЙСКОМУ языку.

Тренировочные материалы состоят из пяти разделов. Разделы 1–4 представляют собой задания письменной части ЕГЭ, а раздел 5 – задания устной части ЕГЭ:

  • раздел 1 – «Аудирование»;
  • раздел 2 – «Чтение»;
  • раздел 3 – «Грамматика и лексика»;
  • раздел 4 – «Письмо»;
  • раздел 5 – «Говорение».

Раздел 1 содержит 2 варианта по 9 заданий. За правильный ответ на задания 1 ставится максимально 6 баллов, на задания 2 – 7 баллов. Задания 3–9 оцениваются в 1 балл. Все задания этого раздела могут включаться только в КИМ ЕГЭ.

Раздел 2 содержит 53 задания. За правильный ответ на задания 1–6 ставится максимально 7 баллов, а на задания 7–12 – 6 баллов. Задания 13–53 оцениваются в 1 балл. Задания 1–12 могут включаться как в экзаменационные материалы ГВЭ-11, так и в КИМ ЕГЭ, а задания 13–53 – только в КИМ ЕГЭ.

Раздел 3 содержит 120 заданий. За правильный ответ на задания 1–120 ставится 1 балл. Задания 1–120 могут включаться как в экзаменационные материалы ГВЭ-11, так и в КИМ ЕГЭ.

Раздел 4 содержит 11 заданий. За полный правильный ответ на задания 1–6 ставится 6 баллов в КИМ ЕГЭ и 10 баллов в ГВЭ, а задания 7–11  оцениваются максимально в 14 баллов в соответствии с критериями оценивания. Задания 1–6 могут включаться как в экзаменационные материалы ГВЭ-11, так и в КИМ ЕГЭ, а задания 7–11 – только в КИМ ЕГЭ.

Раздел 5 содержит 4 задания. За полный правильный ответ на задание 1 ставится 1 балл, задание 2 оценивается максимально в 5 баллов, задания 3 и 4 – в 7 баллов в соответствии с критериями оценивания. Все задания этого раздела могут включаться только в КИМ ЕГЭ.

ПИСЬМЕННАЯ ЧАСТЬ ЕГЭ ПО АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ

Раздел 1. Аудирование

При проведении ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам в экзамен включается раздел «Аудирование», все задания по которому записаны на аудионоситель. Аудитории, выделяемые для проведения раздела «Аудирование», оборудуются средствами воспроизведения аудионосителей.

Для выполнения заданий раздела «Аудирование» технические специалисты или организаторы настраивают средство воспроизведения аудиозаписи так, чтобы было слышно всем обучающимся, выпускникам прошлых лет. Аудиотекст к каждому заданию или каждой группе заданий прослушивается участниками экзамена дважды, после чего они приступают к выполнению заданий. Для слепых и поздноослепших участников экзамена в заданиях по аудированию увеличены паузы для занесения ответов в специально предусмотренные тетради рельефно-точечным шрифтом Брайля.

Вариант 1

1

Вы услышите 6 высказываний. Установите соответствие между высказываниями каждого говорящего A–F и утверждениями, данными
в списке
1–7. Используйте каждое утверждение, обозначенное соответствующей цифрой, только один раз. В задании есть одно лишнее утверждение. Вы услышите запись дважды. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу.

1.

Using public transport is a good way to explore a new place.

2.

Public transport may help to solve some environmental problems.

3.

Life in a big city would stop without public transport.

4.

There are ways to avoid using public transport.

5.

There are good reasons why public transport should be free.

6.

Without public transport life would be fun.

7.

Public transport is unsafe because people ignore all the rules there.

Говорящий

A

B

C

D

E

F

Утверждение

2

Вы услышите диалог. Определите, какие из приведённых утверждений А–G соответствуют содержанию текста (1 – True), какие не соответствуют (2 – False) и о чём в тексте не сказано, то есть на основании текста нельзя дать ни положительного, ни отрицательного ответа (3 – Not stated). Занесите номер выбранного Вами варианта ответа в таблицу. Вы услышите запись дважды.

A.

Jake has given up on a hobby lately.

B.

Jake used to be absolutely helpless in the kitchen.

C.

Mary didn’t see the Jamie Olivier’s show that Jake liked.

D.

Jake’s first cooking experience was a success.

E.

Thanks to Jake, his mother now has time to visit beauty salons.

F.

Mary thinks Jake would enjoy cooking forever.

G.

Jake hasn’t bought a birthday present for Mary yet.

Утверждение

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

Соответствие диалогу

Вы услышите интервью. В заданиях 3–9 запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2 или 3, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа. Вы услышите запись дважды.

3

What is the film Eden NOT about?

1)

Mia’s generation.

2)

Famous DJs.

3)

Mia’s brother.

4

According to Mia, what did Sven feel while working with her?

1)

He found it hard working with his sister.

2)

He didn’t always like her view of the story.

3)

He didn’t realize she remembered much.

5

What is NOT true about the main hero’s girlfriend that Mia mentions?

1)

Her part in the film is very small.

2)

She influenced his development.

3)

Her prototype is Sven’s present wife.

6

What did Mia especially enjoy working with Sven?

1)

Comparing their memories.

2)

Discussing the process.

3)

Writing in foggy weather.

7

What does Mia say about reconstructing the past for an autobiographical movie?

1)

Reality is what is created in the film.

2)

A film story always differs from reality.

3)

It’s hard to remember the real past.

8

Mia wanted Eden to consist of two parts but it was impossible because …

1)

Sven had thrown away a third of the scenario.

2)

there wasn’t enough finances for it.

3)

she had no material for a long script.

9

What was Mia’s concept for having two parts of the film?

1)

To show different periods of life in each part.

2)

To make the third part as a sequel a bit later.

3)

To make more money by attracting an audience.

Вариант 2

1

Вы услышите 6 высказываний. Установите соответствие между высказываниями каждого говорящего A–F и утверждениями, данными
в списке
1–7. Используйте каждое утверждение, обозначенное соответствующей цифрой, только один раз. В задании есть одно лишнее утверждение. Вы услышите запись дважды. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу.

1.

As any language, Italian opens a new world for a learner.

2.

Italian friends may inspire one to learn their language.

3.

Writing in Italian is more difficult than speaking it.

4.

You may need Italian to travel across Italy.

5.

It’s pleasant both to learn and speak Italian.

6.

A hobby may inspire you to learn Italian.

7.

You may need to learn Italian for your future career.

Говорящий

A

B

C

D

E

F

Утверждение

2

Вы услышите диалог. Определите, какие из приведённых утверждений А–G соответствуют содержанию текста (1 – True), какие не соответствуют (2 – False) и о чём в тексте не сказано, то есть на основании текста нельзя дать ни положительного, ни отрицательного ответа (3 – Not stated). Занесите номер выбранного Вами варианта ответа в таблицу. Вы услышите запись дважды.

A.

Kate is going to travel to Russia with a friend.

B.

Kate is going to get a Russian visa tomorrow.

C.

Derek was in Russia as a tourist.

D.

Derek has a good impression about Russia.

E.

Derek thinks people drink tapped water in small towns.

F.

Kate will spend a couple of days in Yaroslavl.

G.

Kate finds Derek’s advice helpful.

Утверждение

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

Соответствие диалогу

Вы услышите интервью. В заданиях 3–9 запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2 или 3, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа. Вы услышите запись дважды.

3

What does Jessica say about her new album?

1)

It’s both enthusiastic and self-contemplating.

2)

She’s been working on it for 25 years.

3)

It’s a sequel to her previous album.

4

Why does Jessica think she needs to change?

1)

It’s important to surprise people sometimes.

2)

It’s absolutely natural for people.

3)

It’s impossible to accomplish anything without it.

5

What kind of person does Jessica seem to be?

6

What was the general reaction of the public to Jessica’s new album?

1)

Skeptical.

2)

Welcoming.

3)

Negative.

7

According to Jessica, why did her fans like her new album?

1)

They felt how it was related to her first album.

2)

It had a much better sound than her previous one.

3)

They liked her new style.

8

What does Jessica say about the lyrics of her new songs?

1)

They became more direct.

2)

They are purposely straightforward.

3)

They lack metaphors.

9

The critical remark that Jessica found offensive was about …

1)

her personal life.

2)

the reason for her success.

3)

her proffesional status.

Ответы к заданиям раздела 1 «Аудирование»

Вариант 1

№ задания

Ответ

1

357214

2

2231321

3

2

4

3

5

3

6

1

7

1

8

2

9

1

Вариант 2

№ задания

Ответ

1

215764

2

1221331

3

1

4

3

5

3

6

2

7

1

8

1

9

2

Раздел 2. Чтение

1

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз.  В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

How we got that mark

5.

Size matters

2.

From a million pounds
to thousands of dollars

6.

Money string changes source

3.

What in a colour

7.

Free to choose from

4.

Weight of money

8.

Before money comes in

A.

In early societies people developed barter as a form of proto-money, when they used the things that everyone agreed to accept in trade. Various items have been used by different societies at different times. Thus, for example, Aztecs used cacao beans, Norwegians used butter, the early U.S. colonists used tobacco leaves, and Roman soldiers were paid a salary of salt. On the island of Nauru, the islanders even used rats for this purpose.

B.

The first coins were made in the Kingdom of Lydia, located on the territory of Turkey in the 7th century B.C. The Lydians used weighed lumps of metal and stamped them with pictures to confirm their weight (the shape of the coins was unimportant). The process of stamping was called “minting”. In fact, the stamp on the coin was a seal that identified the person who had guaranteed the weight of that coin.

C.

The well-known dollar sign has various explanations. Perhaps one of the most widely accepted is that it was the result of the evolution of the Mexican or Spanish “Ps” which was used for pesos. This theory explains that the “S” gradually came to be written over the “P”, developing a close equivalent to the American dollar “$” mark. It was widely used even before the adoption of the United States dollar in 1785.

D.

The largest banknote ever issued by the Bank of England was the £1,000,000 note. Designed for use by the UK government only, the notes were canceled after just a few months, allowing very few to escape into private hands. However, just because the notes are out of service nowadays doesn’t mean that they are valueless. In 2008, one of two known surviving notes was sold at auction for almost $120,000.

E.

According to the Guinness Book of World Records, the world’s largest banknote is the 100,000-peso note, which is of the size of a standard sheet of paper. It was created by the government of the Philippines in 1998 to celebrate a century of independence from Spanish rule. The note was offered only to collectors, who could purchase one of the limited-edition notes for
180,000 pesos, or about $3,700.

F.

American Indians used to have strings of clamshells, which they called wampum and used as money. The process to make wampum was very labor intensive, which increased their value among the European traders. However, the Dutch colonists began to manufacture wampum themselves and eventually became the primary source of wampum, thereby destroying the system which had functioned for centuries.

G.

Why are U.S. notes green? No one is really sure. However, in 1929, when the Bureau of Printing and Engraving began making smaller size currency, green continued to be used because its pigment was readily available in large quantities. Green is also relatively high in its resistance to chemical and physical changes, and it has been psychologically identified with the strong and stable credit of the government.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

2

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз.  В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

Good enough for the royal family

5.

From childhood and on

2.

From women to the military

6.

From movie stars to every woman

3.

The company moves overseas

7.

Changes in cinematography, changes in make-up

4.

New products, new leaders

8.

New place, new make-up

A.

Max Factor is often called the father of modern make-up. The success story started in Max’s early years. He was born Max Faktorowicz in Lodz, Poland, near the Russian border, around 1877. With 10 children, his parents could not afford formal education for their children, so at the age of eight Max was placed in an apprenticeship to a pharmacist. Years of mixing potions for the pharmacy developed his fascination with cosmetics.

B.

Eventually, Max opened his own shop in a suburb of Moscow, selling hand-made cosmetics. “Health and beauty products” became an important business for him. A traveling theatrical troupe bought and wore Max’s make-up and wigs while performing for Russian nobility. Soon Max became the official cosmetic expert for members of the Russian court, the Imperial Grand Opera and the Ballet.

C.

In 1904, Max and his family moved to the United States. Max Faktorowicz was now Max Factor, the name given to him at Ellis Island by immigration officials. Now Max Factor was dreaming of movie actors and actresses using his products. He moved his family to Los Angeles. In 1914, Max Factor created a make-up specifically for movie actors that, unlike thick theatrical make-up, would not crack.

D.

The development of color film production required the Max Factor company to develop a new line of products. The existing make-up reflected surrounding colors. As a result of how bad they looked, many actors and actresses refused to appear in color films. At this time Frank Factor, Max’s son, took the lead and developed a suitable product. It had a solid cake form and was applied with a damp sponge, which concealed skin imperfections.

E.

Soon actresses and other women working on movies sets were stealing new make-up to use in their personal lives. Its only disadvantage for everyday use was that it made the skin too dark under regular lights, having been designed for the powerful lights used in film studios. Frank Factor began developing lighter shades. In 1937, new “Pan-Cake” make-up was released to the public and it became one of the fastest selling cosmetic items.

F.

After Max Factor’s death, Frank Factor took the name Max Factor, Jr., and expanded the still private cosmetics firm. The company began development of a smear-proof lipstick which would not fade. A special machine was constructed to test the formula’s resistance. The result was “Tru-Color” lipstick in six shades of red. During World War II, Max Factor developed make-up shades for use by the US Marine Corps in camouflaging faces.

G.

Max Factor, Jr., continued his commercially successful developments, such as cream make-up supplied in stick form. Soon the company offered shampoo for men and its first perfume called “Electrique”. The early 1960s saw the company go public and list its stock on the New York Stock Exchange. This period also saw the third generation of the Factor family rise to senior positions within the company.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

3

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз. В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

How to use bicycles to get to work

5.

Benefits of cycling in a gym

2.

Why bikes are not safe

6.

Why bikes are popular

3.

Bicycles with a difference

7.

Safety rules to follow

4.

Statistics for thought

8.

What makes the choice difficult

A.

Over a hundred million bicycles are produced every year. China, India, the European Union, Japan and Taiwan manufacture 87% of the total amount. Most bicycles sold in the U.S. are imported from China. Although it is at the forefront of both bicycle use and production, China has seen a decline in bicycle use. In 2002 only 20% of the population used bicycles as a means of transport, while in 1995 that percentage was as high as 60%.

B.

Bicycle commuting requires finding an appropriate route, getting a bicycle that is in good condition and wearing the right clothing when cycling. The commuter should verify that the location he is commuting to has an area for parking bicycles. Online map programmes can be used to find a good route free of highways. A test ride should be done to make sure the route is safe and to find out how long it takes.

C.

Selecting a bike of the right size can be a serious challenge. First of all, it involves measuring the user’s height and leg length. Most bike manufacturers provide helpful tables that specify the appropriate frame sizes for different builds and body types. In addition, children’s bikes are sized differently than adult bikes. Where adult bikes use the frame size as the primary measurement, children’s bikes rely on the wheel size.

D.

Unicycles, one-wheeled bicycles, are believed to have been an adaptation of the world’s first bicycle, which had a large front wheel and a smaller back wheel. There are several different styles of unicycle riding. Mountain unicycling involves riding down off-road trails or mountains using unicycles with large tyres. In freestyle unicycling, cyclists perform stunts and tricks similar to those done by skateboarders.

E.

When it comes to improving health, using a stationary bike is safer than running on a treadmill, doing cross-training or cycling outdoors although it takes more time to get results. Using the bike in a sports centre helps to decide such problems as lowering blood pressure and reducing the risk of heart disease, without the risk of hurting joints. It is suitable for beginners or for those who are just starting to exercise.

F.

When riding a mini bike, we should not forget about the necessary equipment. Experts advise riders to select helmets certified for mini bike usage, since this ensures the helmets provide the proper protection. It is best to wear elbow pads, knee pads and protective gloves to increase protection in an accident. It is also important to ride in the daytime or in proper lighting and to avoid motor vehicle traffic as much as possible.

G.

Lots of people ride bikes for lots of different reasons. Riding a bike offers many health benefits. It can be done by people of all ages, from childhood up through the adult years when achy joints do not allow for more stressful exercise like jogging. Riding a bike is a proven stress releaser, regardless of whether a person is riding for pleasure or for a specific purpose. Also, bicycling does not harm the environment.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

4

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз. В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

A voice we cannot hear

5.

Expert hunters

2.

Invisible beauty

6.

A borrowed name

3.

Animals for fun

7.

Able to live everywhere

4.

Ages in service of humankind

8.

The oldest living creature

A.

A Madagascar tortoise found by the British explorer Captain Cook in 1773 lived to the age of at least 188 years old. The animal was called Tui Malila. The amazing tortoise appears in the photo taken in 1953 when Queen Elizabeth visited the island. Tortoises can live for many years because their vital systems do not weaken with age, as ours do. They can also survive for very long periods without water or food, living off from their ‘reserves’. 

B.

Sheep were among the first animals domesticated. An archeological site in Iran produced a statuette of a sheep that suggests that selection for woolly sheep began over 6,000 years ago. Sheep skins and horns have been used by people for centuries – sheep horns as drinking vessels or as blowing horns, and sheep skins for keeping themselves warm in winter. The popularity of sheep selection has resulted in more than 200 breeds of sheep occurring worldwide.

C.

Frogs have evolved to exist in a surprising variety of climates. They can be found just about anywhere there’s fresh water, from the desert to the Arctic, on all continents except Antarctica. Though they thrive in warm tropical climates, we can also come across frogs in deserts and on 5,000-meter mountain slopes. The Australian frog, for example, can wait up to seven years for rain. It stays underground in a cocoon made of its own old skin. 

D.

The glass-winged butterfly has wings that are transparent. The tissue between their veins looks like glass, as it lacks colored stripes. The rare butterfly is an absolutely lovely specimen. Truly fascinating, it sparkles even in the weakest light. Although its wings are not literally made of glass, it could fool most into believing otherwise. This butterfly is a natural and living creature whose wings make soft noises as it glides gracefully from place to place. 

E.

Which came first: the kiwifruit or the kiwi? As it turns out, it was the latter. The kiwifruit was actually called “Chinese gooseberry” until the 1950s when importers decided to give it a more fun name that would remind people of New Zealand where it was grown, and a marketing campaign was born. People from New Zealand are often called kiwis and the kiwi fruit looks just like the adorable Kiwi bird – both are small, greyish-brown and furry.

F.

Sailors have long been frightened by the large black-and-white dolphins known as orcas. The animals are known to feed on everything from fish to giant blue whales. Researchers say it is certainly true that orcas have developed creative strategies that help them to kill their future meal. For example, when penguins have a rest on a piece of sea ice, orcas rock it or use their bodies and tails to make waves that wash their prey off the ice and into the water. 

G.

For centuries, biologists believed giraffes were the silent giants of Africa’s plains and forests. In recent years, however, new technologies have allowed scientists to listen more carefully and realize that giraffes may be talking after all. Scientists have discovered that not only giraffes, but also elephants and some other animals use extremely low-frequency sounds – far below the range of human ears – which are known as “infrasound”.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

5

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз. В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

Analytical thinking skills

5.

Stress reduction

2.

Free entertainment

6.

Better writing skills

3.

Improved concentration

7.

Self improvement

4.

Preparation to action

8.

Increase of knowledge

A.

Through reading, you begin to understand the world and yourself more. You begin to have a greater understanding on a topic that interests you; for example: how to build self confidence, how to plan better before taking action, how to memorize things better. All of these changes in you start from the reading; through reading, you create a structured path towards a better understanding and better actions to take in the future.

B.

Reading is an essential way which can help you out when you seek for help and guidance. In today’s world, getting feedback from other people can make a big impact on your next decision, and the pros and cons of each choice. Read about how to cook a meal; how to play chess; which place is nice for the holiday trip; read the manual before using a new gadget. These all can help you become more prepared before you really get into it.

C.

Whether it’s fiction or nonfiction, books help give you a greater understanding of the world around you. They introduce you to new characters, new cultures, new philosophies, new ideas, and even help you build new skills. Everything you read fills your head with new bits of information, and you never know when it might come in handy. The more you read, the better-equipped you are to tackle any challenge you’ll ever face.

D.

Have you ever read an amazing mystery novel, and solved the mystery yourself before finishing the book? That ability to analyze details is important when it comes to determining if it was a well-written piece, or the characters were properly developed, etc. If you happen to discuss the book with others, you’ll be able to state your opinions clearly, as you’ve taken the time to really consider all the aspects involved.

E.

In today’s world our attention is drawn in a million different directions simultaneously. Working on a task, checking email, chatting with people online simultaneously is part of everyone’s daily experience. When you read a book, all of your attention is focused on the story – the rest of the world just disappears. If you read for 15–20 minutes before work you’ll be surprised at how much more focused you are once you get to the office.

F.

Reading is a lifelong skill, and successful people never stop reading new books. When you read books you learn a lot, broaden your mind and enrich your vocabulary. Well-written works influence one’s own writing; observing the writing styles of other authors will no doubt influence your own style, your choice of words. In the same way that musicians influence one another, writers learn how to craft prose by reading the works of others.

G.

Reading is the best pastime for many. Many people collect books and have big home libraries. Buying books, however, can be quite expensive. If you visit your local library you can enjoy reading books which you do not have to buy. Libraries have books on every subject imaginable, and since they constantly get new books, you’ll never run out of reading materials. There are also many e-books available online for which you do not have to pay.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

6

Установите соответствие между текстами A–G и заголовками 1–8. Занесите свои ответы в таблицу. Используйте каждую цифру только один раз. В задании один заголовок лишний.

1.

Journey through time

5.

Time perception

2.

Buy time – get food

6.

Shorter travel time

3.

Prime time cost

7.

Never put off till too long

4.

Change of time zones effect

8.

Summer time

A.

You take off at 8:00 pm in Moscow and land at 11:00 pm in New York the same day, though the flight lasts ten hours. It’s fantastic, but as a result of such a long-distance journey you may feel sleepy, or even exhausted. It’s the phenomenon of a so called “jet lag”. For years, it was considered merely a state of mind, but studies have shown that “jet lag” is a real thing. This condition actually results from an imbalance in our body’s natural “biological clock” caused by travelling to different time zones.

B.

Procrastination, or avoiding tasks that must be done, is a symbol of poor time management. About 25 percent of students become chronic procrastinators. Such behaviour has many root causes, including fear of failure, lack of motivation and uncertain priorities. You postpone your tasks and instead hang out with friends, watch TV, or read for pleasure. However, a regular pattern of missing deadlines is a bad habit. It will cause your grades to slip and threaten your academic or professional future.

C.

Travelling forwards in time is surprisingly easy, at least theoretically. If one could leave the Earth in a spacecraft travelling at an appreciable fraction of light speed, turn around and come back, only a few years might have passed on board but many years could have gone by on Earth. There is only one problem for anyone wishing to get a glimpse of the future – getting back. It would mean travelling faster than light – and that’s not possible, at least now. Would you like to risk it some day?

D.

A thirty-second commercial advertisement during the Super Bowl costs about $4 million, which is by far the most expensive advertising time money can buy in the world. Still there were many companies that were ready to pay that much. Why? For that price, advertisers had a chance to reach more than 110 million viewers simultaneously, and this is worth paying for. Organizers sold its ad spots to different companies, including Super Bowl mainstays such as Doritos, Coca-Cola, Chevy, and many others.

E.

On the basis of our inborn ability to estimate passing time, researchers in 1963 suggested that time identified by our brain (subjective time) was synchronized with the ticking of an internal clock, in much the same way as our daily life is governed by the ticking of our watch (objective time). The subjective duration of time depends on the number of pulses. When the internal clock speeds up, the number of pulses increases, creating the impression that time is passing more slowly.

F.

When travelling, consider a high speed train if it is available. In many European cities, train stations are located near the historic city centre, where all the best sights are located. If you travel by train, you simply show up right before the train pulls away and you are immediately on your way. Airports on the other hand are typically located far from the city centre, which wastes your time and money. Besides, airports usually have long security lines, so you are supposed to come there long in advance.

G.

Instead of another coffee, maybe you’d rather get a little extra time from the coffee house. That’s the idea behind the Clockface Café, a series of coffee joints in one of Moscow’s fancier neighbourhoods near the Kremlin. It may seem paradoxical, but the idea is to make you forget time even as the bill there depends on how much of it you spend in the café. Every minute costs two rubles, which means an hour costs 120 rubles. For their money visitors get coffee, tea, toasts, biscuits, and as much as they want.

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

7

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

The languages of integration

Every year the European Day of Languages is marked on 26 September. The idea behind the event is to raise public awareness of all the languages spoken in Europe and the importance of language learning in _____________________. The European Day of Languages celebrates linguistic diversity as one of Europe’s strengths, _____________________ of school.

The European Union is convinced _____________________ compared with the professional and personal opportunities lost due to inadequate language skills. That is why many national governments encourage people to learn languages at all educational levels and at all ages during their working life.

Many local authorities provide immigrants with language training, familiarization courses on local society and culture, _____________________. The latter elements are often provided in the immigrants’ own languages.

One example is from the Flemish city of Ghent in Belgium, _____________________ including 1200 hours of Dutch, plus 75 hours of civic orientation courses. Hungary developed its national integration policy on the basis of a six-month pilot project called Matra _____________________, 700 hours of cultural and legal orientation, and financial assistance with living expenses. The Finnish education system supports the maintenance and development of the mother tongues of immigrants to ensure what it calls functional bilingualism.

1.

and assistance in finding jobs in a new country

2.

spreading tolerance and mutual understanding

3.

upbringing healthier and more athletic children

4.

that the cost of promoting language learning is modest

5.

that included 1200 hours of language teaching for immigrants

6.

and encourages lifelong language learning in and out

7.

where immigrants are offered an introductory programme

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

8

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

The discovery of three planets

In 1781, William Herschel, viewing the sky, recognized that an object in the constellation of Gemini was moving against the background of stars. At first, he thought he was looking at a new comet, but upon further investigation realized _____________________.

Herschel named his discovery ‘the Georgian planet’ after his patron,
George III. Other names proposed included Herschel and Uranus. Eventually Uranus became the universally accepted name. Uranus is similar in composition to Neptune, and both
_____________________ larger gas giants Jupiter and Saturn.

In the 19th century it became evident that the orbit of Uranus did not follow Newton’s law of Gravitation. Many astronomers began to question whether Newton’s theory applied to an object so far from the sun. However, two astronomers in two different countries independently came up with the theory C _____________________ by a more distant planet.

Working to these calculations, astronomers at the Berlin Observatory _____________________. They had discovered the eighth planet of the solar system, Neptune. It was observed on 23 September 1846, and its largest moon, Triton, was discovered shortly thereafter, though none _____________________ telescopically until the 20th century.

After the discovery of Neptune, astronomers _____________________ the solar system for a ninth planet. In 1930, an American astronomer discovered the last of the known worlds of our solar system, Pluto.

1.

that was completely new

2.

were able to identify this planet

3.

that he was looking at a new planet

4.

that the orbit of Uranus had been disturbed

5.

started to look further into the depths of

6.

are of different chemical composition than the

7.

of the planet’s remaining 12 moons were located

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

9

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

Winter in the UK

During November, Christmas markets appear in countless towns and cities across the UK. London’s Hyde Park becomes a huge winter wonderland. Christmas markets have something for everyone. Children can meet Father Christmas; adults can enjoy a glass of mulled wine. Often, temporary ice skating ______________________ provides some entertainment!

The weather gets noticeably colder: the mornings ______________________ freezing. I like the cold weather – for me, there’s something nice about wearing a thick winter coat with a scarf and gloves.

Along with countless school ______________________ excited about the thought of snow. In the Scottish Highlands, snow is quite common. Where I come from, in the North West of England, snow is a fairly rare occurrence. In the UK, because a heavy snowfall is rare, we are usually not prepared. A few years ago there was a lot of snow and many schools had the day off. Snowball fights ______________________ enjoy building snowmen together. Two years ago my sister and I made an igloo! I love a white Christmas; unfortunately this doesn’t happen often in the UK.

Christmas time also brings other ______________________ and Christmas dinner. Throughout December, many churches and schools hold carol concerts: lots of traditional songs are sung, such as “Away in a Manger” and “Silent Night”. Christmas dinner is my favourite meal of the year. In my house, Christmas dinner includes turkey, pigs in blankets (these are sausages wrapped in bacon), roast potatoes and lots of vegetables. This is usually followed by ______________________ – and lots of chocolate!

1.

seasonal specialities: advent calendars, carol concerts

2.

snow and many schools had the day off

3.

Christmas cake and mince pies

4.

rinks are installed and this definitely

5.

children across the UK, I get very

6.

are great fun and many families

7.

are often frosty and the nights close to

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

10

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

The best season for a trip to Russia

Tourists can visit Russia in all seasons. All year long visitors will find many interesting places to see and things to do.

If tourists come in winter, they can visit all the museums, theatres and places of interest, participate in the Russian national festivals and spend unforgettable moments. Moreover, accommodation in winter is cheaper than in other seasons, A_______________________.

Early spring is almost like winter, but starting from mid-April it becomes warm almost everywhere, trees become green, flowers bloom B_______________________ in the air. Late spring is a perfect time to visit beautiful parks such as the one in Pavlovsk near St. Petersburg.

Summer is a great time to visit almost any place in Russia. Tourists can visit Moscow C_______________________ unique nature such as Siberia, Altai or Kamchatka. Summer is also the time of renowned White Nights. While staying in St. Petersburg, one has a unique chance to feel this time of the year D_______________________ and the famous bridge partings.

Autumn is good for holidays in Russia too. From September to mid-October the weather is still fine, E_______________________ as leaves on trees are getting yellow, orange, red and brown. In autumn tourists can visit main cities, have a voyage on a small boat enjoying splendid views from water, have a walk in autumn parks or cruise down the Volga River. Holidays in Russia will give tourists a lot of impressions F_______________________.  

1.

so tourists can save money

2.

that they will keep in memory for long

3.

and there is such a good smell of them

4.

that was unforgettable, strong and fresh

5.

or go to remote regions of Russia to enjoy

6.

and enjoy fabulous walks all night long

7.

and nature is becoming more and more beautiful

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

11

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

St Basil’s Cathedral

The construction St Basil’s Cathedral was ordered by Ivan the Terrible.
It was built with the purpose to commemorate the capture of both Kazan and Astrakhan. At the time that original construction was finished,
A_________________________.

Fire caused significant damage to St Basil’s Cathedral in the 1580s, as well as in the year 1737. These fires prompted refits and renovations. Thankfully,
the famous cathedral was unaffected by the great Fire of Moscow in 1812, and in 1848
B_________________________. The domes of St Basil’s were originally gold.

Emperor Nicholas II realized C_________________________. Subsequent renovations included the installation of a warm air heating system in 1908 and D_________________________that was put in place in 1913.

In 1929 St Basil’s Cathedral became a museum. It operates in conjunction with the State Historical Museum and is the property of the Russian Federation. In 1990, St Basil’s Cathedral became part of UNESCO’s larger Moscow Kremlin and Red Square World Heritage Site, and it has certainly gotten E_________________________.

A great way to get in touch with St Basil’s Cathedral history is F_________________________. St Basil’s is open to the public all days, except on Tuesdays and the occasional days when it is closed for repairs. The hours are 11 a.m. to 5 p.m. As a side note, a variety of Russia tours highlight Red Square and Basil’s Cathedral, and these tours can provide wonderful insight into the history of the area in general.

1.

to actually visit the famous landmark

2.

the cathedral was the tallest building in Moscow

3.

to destroy it but happily it did not happen

4.

the importance of maintaining such a landmark

5.

the fitting of a pumped water system

6.

its onion shaped domes got their bold colours

7.

its fair share of visitors over the years

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

12

Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифры, обозначающие соответствующие части предложений, в таблицу.

Christmas in the UK

What is a typical English Christmas? Christmas in England starts in mid-October, or A_______________________. There are Christmas decorations on sale, present idea” shelves with selections of things you might like to buy your mother, your sister, and in fact anyone at all! In early to mid-November, depending on the shop, they will usually start to play Christmas music. This includes B_______________________ such as Slade, Paul McCartney and Mariah Carey. By now towns will usually have put up decorative lights in the streets ready for the official turn on”.

In the last week of November or the beginning of December Christmas will officially begin. People will start putting up Christmas trees in their C_______________________ to give to each other, exchanging Christmas cards and if people are lucky, they might even get snow!

On Christmas Eve children are advised to be good and go to bed D_______________________. On Christmas morning, I would always wake up very early and run downstairs to see how many presents there were, and my father would help me make breakfast in bed for mother. Slightly later (usually 9 am or so) we would sit together and open presents. In my family we also make E_______________________ so that “thank you” notes can be sent later.

After the Christmas lunch, which normally takes place F_______________________ at 2 or 3 pm, families often sit around playing games or watching films, and discuss plans for the next year.

1.

closer to the end of holidays

2.

carols and also more modern hits

3.

homes, buying and wrapping presents

4.

a list of who has given whom what gift

5.

later in the day than a normal lunch

6.

early so Santa will come to deliver their presents

7.

at least it does in the shops

Ответ:

A

B

C

D

E

F

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 13–19. В каждом задании запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Imperial treasures from Vienna

It is small – it’s just a ring, after all. It is also surprising and breathtaking. The colour and purity of the stone and the shield-like shape that forms the front of the object give the sapphire ring the kind of cool elegance that can, however, be reproduced in photographs. But its amazing hot halo of shooting blue, purple and pink lights is visible only in person. The entire ring is masterfully carved from a single, unbroken hunk of the precious gem. It’s unique – there is nothing quite like it anywhere else. Made in 1400, the ring is the earliest of the 60 treasures on view in “Splendour and Power”, which just opened at the Fitzwilliam Museum in Cambridge. It is a perfect example of the exhibition’s purpose, which is to delight visitors while also explaining why rulers collected these very expensive, ornate and masterfully crafted objects. In this case the collectors were the dynasty of the Habsburgs, who ruled the Holy Roman Empire from their Austrian base for centuries.

Surprisingly, these pieces may occasionally mimic the shapes of useful objects, like drinking cups, but they were never meant to be utilitarian. That is not to say they lacked purpose. Indeed, they were designed to “enchant the senses, delight the eye and inspire the intellect,” writes Sabine Haag, the curator of this show, which was loaned from Vienna’s Kunsthistoriches Museum (KHM), in the excellent catalogue.

Some of the precious objects were prized as exotic messengers from far-off lands. These include a carved, pale jade Ming bowl, mounted with rubies from the Ottoman court (possibly as a diplomatic gift). When it made its way to the Habsburgs it joined other spectacular objects in the Kunstkammer (art chamber), collected to further legitimise and enhance the power of the ambitious owner.

It was only in the 19th century that art was split into “high” and “low». Anything decorative fit into the latter category, regardless of beauty or technical expertise. As a result, some may find it difficult to look at these rock-crystal vessels, jewels and perfume flasks as works of art. The single piece in this exhibition that should succeed in repairing this ill-judged high/low divide is the ivory cup made by Bernhard Strauss in Augsburg around 1660. It is so deeply carved with classical gods and goddesses – Apollo with his lyre, Diana with her alert dog – that the piece has become translucent. It seems Strauss brought Olympus to life.

Elsewhere in the Fitzwilliam paintings and sculpture are exhibited in rooms decorated with fine Oriental rugs, warm wood furniture and tick-tocking Thomas Tompion clocks. But never mind. Benefactions from the Monument Trust have allowed the Fitzwilliam to commission new display cases of non-reflective glass. The welcome illusion is that nothing separates the viewer from the viewed.

The Kunstkammer at the KHM can boast of the greatest surviving princely treasure in the Western world. It has been closed for refurbishment since 2002, making this loan – the largest for half a century – possible. The Kunstkammer is expected to reopen at the end of next year, after which decades will surely pass before its objects leave home again. For those within striking distance of Cambridge, enough said.

13

According to the author, the beauty of the exhibited sapphire ring can be fully appreciated …

1)

in a photograph.

2)

at the exhibition.

3)

in special light.

4)

where it was carved.

14

It” in “It is a perfect example of the exhibition’s purpose” (paragraph 1) refers
to the  …

1)

ring.

2)

exhibition’s collection.

3)

exhibition’s origin.

4)

exhibition’s catalogue.

15

Saying “they were never meant to be utilitarian” the author means that the exhibits were supposed to be …

1)

useful.

2)

expensive.

3)

decorative.

4)

unusual.

16

According to the author (paragraph 4), some objects may be seen as …

1)

common things.

2)

poorly manufactured.

3)

spoilt in repairs.

4)

collected ill-advisedly.

17

“Some” in “some may find it difficult to look at these rock-crystal vessels, jewels and perfume flasks as works of art” (paragraph 4) refers to the …

1)

exhibits.

2)

visitors.

3)

artists.

4)

owners.

18

The Monument Trust helped to provide …

1)

better attendance of the exhibition.

2)

better decorated rooms.

3)

furniture for the exhibition rooms.

4)

better conditions for viewing the exhibits.

19

The article was written to …

1)

advertise Vienna’s Kunsthistoriche Museum.

2)

prove that the exhibits are works of art.

3)

attract more visitors to the exhibition.

4)

describe the treasures of the Hapsburgs.

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 20–26. В каждом задании запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Ordeal by water

It is tempting to regard the river Thames as another artery in London’s integrated transport system, a continuation of the Victoria Underground line. In this ideal world, passengers move effortlessly from river ferry to train, bus or Tube, continuing their seamless journey carefree.

Unfortunately, that is not exactly how it is. Father Thames is not as kind and even-tempered as it might seem as one is looking at the map. It is a muddy, tidal creek whose flukish currents insidiously rip round the base of bridges. Navigation is hard. And the river is not straight: it does giant loops, especially around the Canary Wharf financial district. A passenger alighting from a river ferry often has to walk five or ten minutes to the nearest land connection.

With London’s Tube and buses bursting at the seams, a succession of entrepreneurs have braved these negatives and tried unsuccessfully to set up commuter services on this natural highway. Sean Collins reckons he is the 15th since 1905 – but this time things may have changed. His business, which started as Collins River Enterprises in 1999, shows every sign of surviving its second decade, despite the economy’s woes and volatile fuel costs. Thames Clippers, as the firm is called these days, carried 3.2m passengers in 2009, running fast catamarans between Woolwich, downriver of the city centre, and Waterloo.

Perhaps Mr. Collins, now its managing director, simply was lucky enough to pick the right time. The past decade has been kind to the Thames. Big property developments have sprung up on both sides of the river, and more are on their way before the 2012 Olympic games. And so far, at least, Canary Wharf seems to be weathering the financial storm. But there has been still another advantage: both public and private backing for the firm have been crucial.

Thames Clippers gets a small subsidy from Transport for London, part of the Greater London Authority. A big step towards welcome integration came in November, when passengers were first allowed to use their fare cards on Thames Clippers, too. And recently, Greenwich Council agreed to pay £269,000 for guaranteed service between Greenwich and Woolwich over the next four years.

One big problem is the jumbled ownership and management of landing piers: the Greater London Authority owns 7 of the 13 in central London and various property developers the rest. At piers used jointly, the situation does not favour the ferries trying to stick to a timetable. They can be delayed by tourist boats hanging on for passengers. To have more control of its schedule, Thames Clippers took over the lease of the privately-owned London Bridge City Pier in November.

Another impediment is the unnecessarily rigid restriction on speed. The Port of London Authority imposes a 12-knot limit west of Wapping, which means that boats can show their exhilarating 30-knot cruising speed only on the eastern stretches of the river.

The Port of London Authority supports the plan to get more people on the river but insists that safety is most important. It also points out that tourists and freight, not just commuters, use the Thames. So for the moment, Thames Clippers’ civilised catamarans to and from Waterloo remain a secret pleasure for the cognoscenti.

20

According to paragraphs 1 and 2, the Thames is …

1)

fully integrated into London’s transport system.

2)

not perfectly fit for solving London’s transport problems.

3)

an ideal way to travel round the city.

4)

providing a shorter journey than on-land transport.

21

The words “the natural highway” in “tried unsuccessfully to set up commuter services on this natural highway” (paragraph 3), stand for …

1)

the city centre.

2)

the railway.

3)

the Tube.

4)

the Thames.

22

Which was the most important factor for Thames Clippers’ success?

1)

Huge numbers of passengers.

2)

The luck of the owner.

3)

Private and public investments.

4)

New and fast catamarans.

23

 “Their” in “allowed to use their fare cards on Thames Clippers, too” (paragraph 5) refers to …

1)

Transport for London.

2)

the passengers.

3)

Greenwich Council.

4)

Thames Clippers.

24

Which impediment for Thames Clippers operations is NOT mentioned in the text?

1)

Inadequate fares for boat trips.

2)

Uncertainty about the timetable.

3)

Joint ownership of the piers.

4)

Speed limit for river transport.

25

Calling the catamarans “a secret pleasure for the cognoscenti”, the author means that …

1)

they are not very suitable.

2)

they offer a good way to spend your free time.

3)

there are few of them compared to the tourist boats.

4)

the possibility to use them is not appreciated by everybody.

26

According to the title of the article, the author thinks that the river transport …

1)

needs improvement.

2)

is not very promising.

3)

is suitable only for tourists.

4)

provides big business opportunities.

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 27–33. В каждом задании запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Bill Gates

Bill Gates has always fascinated me both as a person and head of the greatest company in the world. His talent became obvious rather early. Bill was the second of three children in an upper-middle class family. He enjoyed playing games with the family and was very competitive. He also loved to read. Bill became bored in public school so his family sent him to Lakeside School, a private school, where he excelled in math, science and English.

Bill was no more than 13 when he became interested in computer programming during the era of giant computers. His school held a fund-raiser to purchase a teletype terminal so students could use computer time that was donated by General Electric. Using this time, Gates wrote a tic-tac-toe program using BASIC, one of the first computer languages. Later he created a computer version of Risk, a board game he liked in which the goal is world domination.

At this time Bill met Paul Allen, who shared his interest in computers. This event had a great impact on his future life, though negative at the beginning. Gates and Allen hacked into a computer belonging to Computer Center Corporation (CCC) to get free computer time but were caught. After a period of probation, they were allowed back in the computer lab when they offered to fix glitches in CCC’s software. At age 17, Gates and Allen were paid $20,000 for a program called Traf-O-Data that was used to count traffic.

In early 1973, Bill Gates served as a congressional page in the U.S. House of Representatives. He scored 1590 out of 1600 on the SAT and was accepted by Harvard University. However, as he later confessed, most of it was a sheer waste of time. Meanwhile, Paul Allen dropped out of Washington College to work on computers. Soon he convinced Gates to drop out of Harvard and join him in starting a new software company in Albuquerque, New Mexico. They called it Micro-Soft. This was soon changed to Microsoft, and they moved their company to Bellevue, Washington.

The breakthrough came in 1980. IBM, one of the largest technology companies of the era, asked Microsoft to write software to run their new personal computer, the IBM PC. Bill and Paul saw their chance and kept the licensing rights for the operating system (MS-DOS). Consequently, they earned money for every computer sold first by IBM, and later by all the other companies that made PC computers. Microsoft grew from 25 employees in 1978 to over 90,000 today.

Over the years, Microsoft developed many new technologies and products such as Word and Power Point. Although some journalists have criticized Gates for using questionable business practices, it is his genius that built Microsoft into one of the largest companies in the world. He has been described as brilliant but childlike, driven, competitive, intense, fun, but lacking in empathy. However, in the last point, they have been proved wrong.

Nowadays Bill Gates is one of the richest men in the world. In 2012, his $61 billion dollars in assets made him the world’s second richest man according to Forbes Magazine.

In 2006, Gates announced that he would cut back his involvement at Microsoft to spend more time on philanthropy. The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation supports many causes including the quest to eradicate Polio, fighting AIDS, malaria and tuberculosis, providing vaccinations for children and trying to make a difference in other vital issues. The great American in every respect!

27

According to the author, when Bill Gates was young, he …

1)

was good at his native tongue at school.

2)

found public school rather challenging.

3)

usually let other people win.

4)

was rather poor and lonely.

28

When at school Bill Gates …

1)

turned a board game into a computer game.

2)

raised money to purchase а teletype terminal.

3)

considered giant computers to be horrible.

4)

invented the first computer language.

29

What happened after Bill Gates met Paul Allen?

1)

They were sent to prison for hacking.

2)

They got involved in a criminal activity.

3)

They earned money helping to make cars.

4)

They got a job putting together computers.

30

It (They called it …) in paragraph 4 refers to …

1)

Albuquerque.

2)

New Mexico.

3)

software.

4)

company.

31

According to the text, Microsoft did NOT make money from …

1)

IBM selling personal computers.

2)

other companies selling personal computers.

3)

creating software for personal computers.

4)

selling personal computers to IBM.

32

According to some journalists, as a person Bill Gates …

1)

was rather shy in his childhood.

2)

has shown incredible maturity.

3)

has not always been very honest.

4)

usually tried to understand and help people.

33

The main idea of the last paragraph is that Bill Gates …

1)

considers charity to be his priority.

2)

has become very wealthy and famous.

3)

finds it important to realize all his talents.

4)

is no longer actively involved with Microsoft.

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 34–40. В каждом задании запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Processed food in the USA

Even though America’s fast food chains and grocery stores have been trying to turn a new leaf to observe the fight against obesity, a new study suggests that most of Americans still get the majority of their calories from highly processed foods pumped with salt, sugar, and fat.

Americans get 57.7 percent of their calories from “ultra-processed” food. In other words, Americans get over half of their food from the factory – not the farm – using chemicals to fake freshness and natural elements, while being pumped with flavors that have all been linked to addiction in multiple studies.

But before we gawk at that number, let’s define what it means to be a processed food. According to the National Health Service, processed foods are any type of food that has been altered from its natural state for safety or convenience.

Processed foods include breakfast cereals, cheese, canned vegetables, and even milk and bread – some of the staples of our daily diet. And yes, processed foods also include the unhealthier things, like microwave meals, chips, bacon, and sodas.  

The thing that almost all processed foods have in common, however, is that they’re pumped with sugar and salt to help preserve their flavor and shelf life. Since most foods found in your average grocery store – aside from fresh fruit and vegetables – are technically processed, it’s likely you’re eating way more of these things than you’re aware.

The researchers found that American consumers mostly purchase moderately processed food (products still recognizable as their original plant or animal), and highly processed food (food mixtures that aren’t recognizable as their original source). Americans are more likely to buy ready-to-eat and ready-to-heat products. The end result? Obesity. According to the World Obesity Federation, 40 percent of American women and 35 percent of men are obese. This places the United States among the fattest countries in the world. Not that genetics don’t play a role – but this isn’t a debate about whether weight comes from nature or nurture.

It’s worth noting that 74 percent of packaged American foods now have added sugar in them – including things like yogurt, bread and pasta sauce. American cuisine then takes these processed ingredients and layers them on top of each other. When you think of how many things can be dipped in chocolate, drizzled with cheese or covered in chili, it’s easy to lose track of how unhealthily we eat on a daily basis.

How do we change this in America? Shop small and thoughtfully. Little grocery stores, like their European counterparts, still exist with fresh local ingredients. Don’t buy frozen chicken and condiments to cover its processed taste. Shopping at a food co-op also helps support local, fresh and sustainable ingredients. Availability will vary, and a few products might be more expensive, but the improved quality will more than make up for the difference.

Also try to take time to really cherish and appreciate meals. Set aside a few nights to cook. Invite friends over for dinner parties. If your first attempt at home-made meatballs goes awry, your misery will enjoy the company – hopefully. Food should be a fun experience, from picking the ingredients to eating the results. It’s a simple pleasure, one that the emphasis on convenience of modern America has lost.

34

The author claims that fast food restaurants are trying to …

1)

serve highly processed food.

2)

make their food less harmful.

3)

change their customer policies.

4)

limit salt, sugar and fat in their food.

35

According to the article, the major aim of producing processed food is to …

1)

prolong its shelf life.

2)

help us eat healthier.

3)

make food more nutritious.

4)

increase its natural flavor.

36

The phrase “these things” in “… eating way more of these things …” (paragraph 5) most probably refers to …

1)

sugar and salt.

2)

fresh fruit and vegetables.

3)

processed vegetables.

4)

fresh groceries.

37

Why is the USA, according to the author, among the fattest countries in the world?

1)

Americans are genetically inclined to gain weight.

2)

Most of American women are obese.

3)

Americans consume a lot of highly processed food.

4)

Obesity comes from consuming food mixtures.

38

According to the author, the reason for unhealthy daily dietary habits in the USA is in the …

1)

quality of pasta sauces.

2)

inattention to healthy nutrition.

3)

popularity of packaged foods.

4)

consumption of too many sweets.

39

What advice on food shopping does the author give?

1)

Order ingredients from Europe.

2)

Buy more expensive products.

3)

Check the freshness of food.

4)

Avoid frozen foods.

40

What message does the author express in the last paragraph?

1)

Look for pleasure in simple things.

2)

Learn to value meals.

3)

Learn how to cook.

4)

Home-made food is healthier.

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 41–47. В каждом задании запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

A hot air balloon ride in Egypt 

For anyone who is visiting Egypt a hot air balloon ride over the Valley of the Kings is a must. You have not seen the land of the ancient pyramids until you have looked down on it from the sky. Our day started early at 3:30 a.m. when our group of four got picked up at our hotel. None of us really knew what to expect as we got out of the van and down into the Nile River.

We joined a quick ferry ride over to the West Bank of the river. When we entered the ferry boat we found ourselves among many other tourists who were all going to take the balloon ride. Soon the passengers were given tea and coffee and boxed breakfast. The breakfast was very simple, one hard-boiled egg, one piece of bread, a packet of cheese cookies and a juice box. A proper English breakfast with bacon and mushrooms waited for us at the hotel. The ferry was overcrowded and everyone was pushing to take photos of the place. Soon we arrived and everyone loaded into another van.

We drove for another ten minutes. During the drive we got our first glance at some of the pyramids. Then we headed to a balloon that was just about to lift off the ground. Each basket had around sixteen people in it. The basket had four sections that held four passengers per section. The center of the basket had a small area where the pilot stood to control the balloon. Surprisingly, there was plenty of room to take photographs and feel comfortable during the hour flight.

People on the ground started to wave goodbye as we slowly began to rise. The process was surprisingly slow and felt like nothing else I have experienced before. We floated up slowly. The distance between the bottom of the basket and the ground stayed short for a long time.  The sun was just starting to rise above the horizon.

 Where we stood was on the right side of the basket, we had a clear view of the Valley of the Kings as the balloon rose into the air.  The left side of the basket saw mostly the city of Luxor and the Nile River. Those on the right side of the basket could view all the sights. People who loaded on the left side had much less time for that.

Having a bird eyes view of the place was exciting. After our balloon flight we were going to spend the whole day exploring different sights – the territory was surprisingly huge. We floated over an area where hundreds of houses once stood. The ruins of them are still there. We got a glimpse of the ancient village of the workers, one of the most overlooked sites on the West Bank. We decided it to add it to our sights to visit that afternoon.

Our basket slowly touched down in a sandy rock field next to one of the pyramids. People on the ground were waiting to help us get out of the basket. With our feet back on the ground there was a five minute song and dance from locals greeting the tourists. While they were singing and dancing, we took photos of them. There were also some young people selling souvenirs. Some of our passengers bought a few. Once back in the van all the tourists were handed our personal flight certificates that highlighted a journey most people will only dream of.

41

In the first paragraph it is stated that the best view of the Valley of the Kings is…

1)

early in the morning.

2)

from the sky.

3)

from the Nile River.

4)

from the hotel.

42

On the ferry boat to the West bank the tourists…

1)

had bacon and eggs for breakfast.

2)

had cheese sandwiches for breakfast.

3)

were eager to take photographs.

4)

were eager to go on  with the trip.

43

In the balloon basket all the passengers…

1)

stood on the right.

2)

stood on the left.

3)

stood in the center.

4)

surrounded the pilot.

44

The ride started …

1)

early in the morning.

2)

late in the afternoon.

3)

late at night.

4)

in the middle of the day.

45

Who had a better view of the sights?

1)

People on the right of the basket.

2)

People on the left of the basket.

3)

Those standing closer to the pilot.

4)

Those standing farther from the pilot.

46

The tourists were impressed by…

1)

the size of the area for sightseeing.

2)

the ruins of old houses they saw.

3)

the length of the ride they took.

4)

the number of sights to see.

47

When the balloon landed everybody …

1)

bought some souvenirs.

2)

danced with the locals.

3)

got a registered document.

4)

registered for a new ride.

Прочитайте текст и выполните задания 48–54. В каждом задании обведите цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Inventions We Cannot Live Without

We’ve all heard the expression “no need to reinvent the wheel”, meaning that a solution already exists to the problem at hand. This saying has added significance when you consider the many ways in which the wheel improved human life, and how long mankind lived without it. The earliest evidence of a wheel in human history occurs at about 3500 B.C. in Mesopotamia. The wheel was probably the most important mechanical invention of all time. Just about all modern mechanical devices use the wheel in some way – factory machines, bikes, wristwatches, movie reels and more. Not to mention the wheel’s continued use for pottery-making and transporting goods by cart.

Surely, the wheel was probably a literal lifesaver for ancient humans, but you can’t hunt a boar with it. That’s why we come to the blade as a breakthrough that literally saved the lives of humans. In fact, new research has shown that stone tools like a blade didn’t just allow humans to eat better, wear better protective clothing and make for a good fight. It appears that 1.7 million years ago when tools began to be formed by human ancestors, they actually contributed to the evolution of how our hands work.

Around a million years ago humans lost their fur to avoid overheating and to cool their skin by sweating. However, we faced a greater risk of exposure to the elements, so we had to put on some clothes. It’s hard to determine exactly when humans started wearing coverings, possibly, during an ice age. Clothes have literally saved our lives innumerable times since then.

Now that we have wheels, blades and clothes, what were early humans to do with all our cool stuff? Just carry it around all day? No. We needed one more breakthrough to make life a little easier, if not actually save human existence. That brings us to shelter. As long as 2.6 million years ago, there were signs that early human groups began collecting food and tools to bring them back to certain favorite watering holes or sleeping spots. About 800,000 years ago, we started seeing fire and hearths added to the mix. By building shelters, humans were not as vulnerable to their environment and could survive harsher conditions.

When the British Medical Journal asked a group of experts and readers what the greatest scientific advancement in the last 150 years was, the answer wasn’t open-heart surgery or the find-my-phone app on smartphones. Beating out antibiotics and anesthesia, the majority chose advancements in sanitation. Though the discovery that proper sewage disposal could save lives wasn’t so long ago. In Victorian England the Thames was filled with waste and sewage overflowed in the streets. During a cholera outbreak in 1854, British scientist John Snow determined that the disease was caused by microorganisms in sewage that contaminated the water supply and came up with the suggestion to apply chlorine to the water to kill the microorganisms, and the illness rate plummeted. Since then, additional chemical and filtration technologies have been developed to make our drinking water much safer.

We don’t know the identity of the African experimenter who discovered how to start, control and use fire about 790,000 years ago. The invention allowed humans to protect themselves and their vulnerable young from predators. It also provided a source of warmth that helped them to survive temperature changes. In addition, the ability to cook animal flesh and vegetation increased food choices for humans and helped them to avoid malnutrition. Perhaps more than any other invention, fire was the breakthrough that enabled humans to multiply and move across the planet’s surface.

48

Which use of the wheel is mentioned in the text?

1)

The making of clothes.

2)

Building houses.

3)

The production of different things from clay.

4)

Hunting.

49

“They” in “they actually contributed to the evolution” (paragraph 2) refers to …

1)

hands.

2)

humans.

3)

tools.

4)

blades.

50

Which of these statements about clothes is TRUE, according to the text?

1)

Clothes were needed not to get burnt in the sun.

2)

Scientists know exactly when the first clothes appeared.

3)

Humans needed clothes because they moved to colder regions.

4)

Clothes were invented after humans lost their body hair.

51

The word “elements” in “… exposure to the elements”  (paragraph 3) refers to …

1)

groups of people.

2)

bad weather.

3)

small parts.

4)

chemical substances.

52

Which purpose of a shelter is NOT mentioned in the text?

1)

sleeping at night.

2)

storing tools.

3)

hiding from bad weather.

4)

keeping a fire.

53

In paragraph 5 (“When the British Medical Journal asked …”) the importance of … is stressed.

1)

open-heart surgery

2)

sanitation

3)

antibiotics

4)

anesthesia

54

In the author’s opinion, the most important aspect of the discovery of fire is that it helped people to …

1)

keep warm.

2)

keep wild animals away.

3)

eat proper food.

4)

spread around the globe.

Ответы к заданиям раздела 2 «Чтение»

№ задания

Ответ

8412563

5187624

4183576

8472651

7481362

4713562

264175

364275

475613

135672

264571

723645

2

1

3

1

2

4

3

2

4

3

2

1

4

1

1

1

2

4

4

3

1

2

1

1

3

3

4

2

2

№ задания

Ответ

3

4

1

1

1

3

3

3

4

2

4

2

4

Раздел 3.

Грамматика и лексика

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1

Christmas trees

One Christmas Eve the trees in a wood were very unhappy. They wished very much to make Christmas stay, but they __________________ how to do so. ‘We are so bare,’ complained one tree. ‘If we only had our pretty green summer dresses,’ said other trees.

NOT KNOW

2

 ‘Hush, children, hush,’ whispered North Wind in a gentle voice, which was unusual for the __________________ of all winds. ‘Go to sleep.’ While they slept something happened.

BAD

3

When the trees awoke they found that someone, perhaps North Wind, had cast over each of __________________ a lovely soft cloak of spotless feathery white.

THEY

4

Seagull problem

The councillors of Dumfries, Scotland, are determined to do something about the seagull problem. Dumfries is the __________________ town in the region invaded by seagulls which attack people. The birds protect their nests.

THREE

5

Local authorities declared that next spring special anti-gull ‘task-force’ __________________ the gull nests. “Seagulls are a menace to Scottish towns,” said Environment Minister Michael Russell.

DESTROY

6

 “Recently, they __________________ aggressive to other birds, pets and even people.”

BECOME

7

Councillor Jack Groom said the time for talk was over, adding that it was time for action before __________________ people were hurt by the gulls. 

MANY

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8

Why do the Chinese call the Yellow River in China “China’s Sorrow”?

The Huang He, or Yellow River, in China is called “China’s Sorrow” by the Chinese themselves. Since long ago, flooding __________________ a serious problem.

BE

9

The __________________, most sorrowful flood on record happened in 1931.

BAD

10

The waters began to rise in July, and by November of that year, more than 40,000 square miles had been flooded, __________________ 80 million people homeless.

LEAVE

11

A rabbit and a tortoise

Once there lived a rabbit and a tortoise. The rabbit challenged the tortoise to have a race with __________________. The tortoise agreed and they started the race.

HE

12

The rabbit ran __________________ than the tortoise, and in a few minutes he was near the crossing line. He couldn’t see the tortoise, so he decided to rest for a while till the tortoise arrived and then he would quickly cross the line.

FAST

13

The rabbit lay down under a tree and soon he was asleep. When he awoke, he saw that the tortoise __________________ the line.

CROSS

14

The tortoise __________________ the match, showing that it’s more important to be steady and active than to be fast.

WIN

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15

Camping tips

If you go camping for the first time, this advice may be quite useful. When you __________________ to take time off work or school for your camping trip, always add an extra week.

PLAN

16

When you get home from your ‘vacation’, you __________________ too tired to go back for a week after.

BE

17

Check the washing instructions before buying any clothes to be worn while camping. Buy only __________________ that read: “Beat on a rock in stream.”

THAT

18

The apple of love

Do you know that this is what the French call the tomato? Aztecs and Incas __________________ tomatoes as far back as in 700 AD.

GROW

19

Explorers __________________ from Mexico introduced the tomato into Europe, where it was first mentioned in 1556.

RETURN

20

There are more than 10,000 varieties of tomatoes. Tomatoes __________________ in many food products, including, of course, tomato sauce (ketchup), pasta and pizza.

USE

21

Tomatoes are rich in vitamins A and C and lycopene. Cooked tomatoes have __________________ concentrations of lycopene than non-cooked tomatoes.

HIGH

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22

A visit to an artist

One day a woman went to visit a famous American artist. The charming old painter was in her late eighties, but she was full of life. She enjoyed __________________ her paintings.

SHOW

23

The visitor __________________ with so much beauty.          

IMPRESS

24

“Oh!” cried the visitor. “What beautiful colours. I wish I could take them home!”

“You will,” said the artist with a smile. “You __________________ on my brushes.”

SIT

25

Finding a pen friend

A letter with a Dutch stamp on the envelope arrived at 43 Tudor Road, Oxford, the other day. It __________________ to Rose Stuart, an 11-year-old girl, who lived at that address.

ADDRESS

26

When she opened it, she had a surprise. When Rose was on a seaside holiday in August, she wrote her name and address on a piece of paper, added the request, “Write to me”, put the paper in a bottle and __________________ it into the sea.

THROW

27

In November, the bottle was picked up from the shore near a village in Holland by a 14-year-old boy. He opened it, found Rose’s message, and at once replied to it. He wrote that he had many books, most of __________________ about sea.

THEY

28

He said he hoped that Rose __________________ to him. Now they are pen friends.

WRITE

 Прочитайте приведённый ниже текст. Образуйте от слов, напечатанных заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами 29–34, однокоренные слова так, чтобы они грамматически и лексически соответствовали содержанию текста. Заполните пропуски полученными словами. Каждый пропуск соответствует отдельному заданию из группы 29–34.

29

Transport in Bangkok

Bangkok is known as the “Venice of the East”. Today, many of the canals have been filled in and paved over to make room for roads, but a massive network of waterways still crosses the city. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries Bangkok experienced __________________ influence.

EUROPE

30

As a result, the city __________________ shifted to a road-based transport system.

SLOW

31

Over the last decade, Bangkok has evolved from a humid riverside city into a modern, rapidly growing Asian __________________ centre. Business travellers will appreciate the city’s growth in public transportation and its world-class airport.

COMMERCE

32

The capital’s airport, which is located 25km east of the city centre, contributed greatly to Bangkok’s __________________.

DEVELOP

33

A modern, convenient elevated rail link connects the airport to the city in 30 minutes, helping __________________ avoid traffic jams.

VISIT

34

The city’s modern public transportation system is a __________________ of sky trains and underground subways. It has transformed the bustling city centre into a futuristic district of street-level roads, elevated roads and sky trains.

COMBINE

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35

Scottish inventions

Do you know how the refrigerator was invented? It is one of the most important __________________ of the Scots to the world.

CONTRIBUTE

36

If James Harrison (1816–1893), a Scottish immigrant to Australia, didn’t __________________ push ether gas into a metal tube, people might still be using boxes filled with blocks of ice to cool their food.

ACCIDENTAL

37

The main problem was how to overcome the need for ice in the __________________ process.

REFRIGERATE

38

Ice had to be cut fresh from frozen lakes and stored inside an underground house until it was ready to be used as a __________________.

COOL

39

Australians had difficulty gaining access to __________________ ice since Australia does not enjoy that many lakes.

NATURE

40

Harrison’s discovery was beneficial the world over, but especially important for Australia because now it could export frozen meat to Europe. He even tried one such journey to Europe, but the ether had leaked during the voyage and ruined the entire cargo. Harrison went bankrupt but his legacy meant a huge __________________ to the Australian economy.

DIFFER

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41

Eastbourne

Eastbourne is a large seaside town on the south coast of England. It has an estimated __________________ of 100,000 people.

POPULATE

42

The area has seen human activity since the Stone age and remained an area of small __________________ right up until the 19th century. The town then started to expand.

SETTLE

43

Eastbourne has the __________________ Eastbourne college which boasts of alumni such as the current head of the British Army.

PRESTIGE

44

__________________ the town holds tennis competitions which bring in numbers of sportsmen and spectators.

ANNUAL

45

Although Eastbourne has some industrial and trading businesses, the main income for the town is still __________________. The main focus of it is the four miles of the beach lined with a seafront of hotels and guest houses.

TOUR

46

As you see, it is __________________ to see and do everything in just one day, so plan your stay in Eastbourne for at least a few days.

POSSIBLE

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47

St. Patrick’s Day

St. Patrick’s Day is an Irish holiday. It’s a __________________ festival of Irish culture on or around March 17.

GLOBE

48

It __________________ remembers St. Patrick, one of Ireland’s patron saints, who ministered Christianity in Ireland during the 5th century. Irish communities and organizations around the world, no matter where they are, give a tribute to this day.

PARTICULAR

49

On St. Patrick’s Day many people wear an item of green clothing. The green colour is meant to __________________ Irish valleys and evergreen nature.

SYMBOL

50

Parties featuring Irish food and drinks that are dyed in green food colour are a part of this __________________.

CELEBRATE

51

It is a time when children can indulge in sweets and adults can enjoy some good time at a local pub. Many restaurants and pubs have __________________ decorations and offer Irish food or drink, which include Irish stew and potato soup as well as many other specialties.

BEAUTY

52

It’s a great day for both kids and grown-ups and an __________________ experience.

FORGETTABLE

Прочитайте приведённые ниже тексты. Преобразуйте, если необходимо, слова, напечатанные заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами 53–59, так, чтобы они грамматически соответствовали содержанию текстов. Заполните пропуски полученными словами. Каждый пропуск соответствует отдельному заданию из группы 53–59.

53

The spinner boom

Do you know about the spinner boom? Recently the spinner __________________ global. You can find them in toy stores, gas stations, online specialty shops.

GO

54

The popularity of fidget spinners __________________ everyone by surprise.

CATCH

55

A toy that everyone could play with was originally designed to calm hyperactive__________________help them focus better. It was also invented to help relieve stress and anxiety.

CHILD

56

Ironically, the gadgets that at first __________________ beneficial for focus have been banned from many schools because they distract children. A fidget spinner may help you focus, but it can also be a distraction when used too much.

CALL

57

For most people fidget spinners are __________________ than beneficial. 

DISTRACTING

58

If the kids __________________ on a fidget spinner game or competition, they’re not paying much attention to anything else happening in the classroom.

FOCUS

59

The future of spinners is in doubt. It’s difficult to predict what __________________ of spinners when the new school year starts.

BECOME

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60

Mount Everest

Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world. Mount Everest attracts __________________from all over the world.

CLIMB

61

Since the first historic climb in 1953, more than 2000 people have__________________climbed Mount Everest. But it is always a challenge.

SUCCESSFUL

62

The members of expeditions have to be physically very fit. Without a special training period one can__________________fail to reach the summit.

EASY

63

A serious difficulty for __________________ undertaking expeditions is the climate.

TOUR

64

Sometimes the weather makes it __________________ to go on with the climbing. The wind, the cold and lack of oxygen make people go back and give up.

POSSIBLE

65

__________________is the most important issue for everyone involved in the business of mountain climbing.

SAFE

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66

A portable air filter

No matter where you live and work, you are breathing in chemicals and pollutants. Some of them are __________________ than others and can harm our health.

DANGEROUS

67

A clever solution is to buy a portable air filter which creates a clean-climate bubble around __________________.

WE

68

The device __________________ in shops all over the world in the near future.

APPEAR

69

The no-touch thermometer

You may think that the invention of the no-touch thermometer is a useless thing. Still, anyone who __________________ a sick child recently will disagree with you here.

HAVE

70

It can be a real problem to measure a baby’s temperature __________________ traditional methods.

USE

71

The __________________ no-touch thermometer was introduced in the 2010s.

ONE

72

Once the device __________________ an inch from a patient’s forehead, it shows the result in 2.5  seconds.

PLACE

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73

Australia – New Zealand Travel

Australia is just so far from everywhere else that making the trip over here is a big deal. Asia is between 8 and 14 hours away, __________________ depending on what country you are heading from.

LARGE

74

So, it’s no wonder that many __________________ choose to continue a trip to Australia by visiting New Zealand.

TRAVEL

75

Australia – New Zealand travel is a great __________________ of the two countries to enjoy the similarities and contrasts between them.

COMBINE

76

However, there can be some minor __________________ about this decision.

ADVANTAGE

77

Even though they both speak the same language, there is a marked __________________ in accents.

DIFFER

78

New Zealand is a manageable size which makes touring really pleasant. Contrast that with the vibrancy, cities, beaches and sunshine of Australia and you will have a __________________ holiday!

WONDER

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Merrywood Elementary

My mother decided it was time for me to go to school. I was sent to Merrywood Elementary when I was six and I thought it was a complete waste of time. What was the 79  _______ of school when I could learn all I needed at the docks? It turned 80  _______ that Mum had other plans for my future which didn’t include joining Uncle Stan in the shipyard.

Once Mum had dropped me off each morning, I would hang around in the yard until she was out of sight, and then slope off to the docks. I made sure I was always back at the school gates when she returned to pick me up in the afternoon. On the 81  _______ back home, I had to be very inventive. I would 82  _______ her everything I’d done at school that day. I was good at making up stories.
83  _______, it wasn’t long before she discovered that was all they were – stories.

Occasionally Mr. Haskins, the gatekeeper, decided he’d seen me leave the school too often and I’d be 84  _______ to the headmaster. My form master, Mr.Holcombe, never let on if I didn’t show up for his class, but then he was a bit soft.

One or two other boys from my school also 85  _______ to hang around the docks but I kept my distance from them. They were older and bigger and never missed a chance to beat me if I got in their way.

79

1)

help

2)

goal

3)

point

4)

aim

80

1)

off

2)

out

3)

in

4)

over

81

1)

trial

2)

path

3)

track

4)

way

82

1)

speak

2)

say

3)

tell

4)

talk

83

1)

moreover

2)

however

3)

therefore

4)

although

84

1)

reported

2)

remembered

3)

reminded

4)

required

85

1)

held

2)

kept

3)

used

4)

had

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 86–92. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 86–92, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов. Запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

At home 

The holiday time was approaching. Harry hadn’t been 86  _______ forward to the holidays; not just because he wondered if he’d ever see his friend Giles again, but also because it meant 87  _______ to No. 27 Ashton Road. He would have to share a room with his uncle, Stan.

Harry’s days at Ashton Road 88  _______ into a well-ordered routine: up at five, one slice of toast for breakfast, report to Mr. Deakins at the newsagent’s by six, stack the papers in the correct order, then deliver them. The whole exercise took about two hours, 89  _______ him to be back home in time for a cup of tea with Mum before she went off to work. At around eight-thirty Harry would set off for the library, where he would meet up with his best friend, Billy. Billy was always sitting on the top step waiting patiently for him.

In the afternoon, Harry would report for choir practice, as part of his
90  _______ to St Bede’s. He never 91  _______ it as such because he enjoyed singing so much.

In fact, he often prayed, “Please, God, when my voice breaks, let me be a tenor and I’ll never ask for anything else.”

After spending the evening going 92  _______ old exam papers, Harry would climb into bed around ten. He quickly fell asleep because he felt tired at the end of the day.

86

1)

seeing

2)

looking

3)

watching

4)

glancing

87

1)

replacing

2)

returning

3)

restoring

4)

removing

88

1)

kept

2)

held

3)

went

4)

fell

89

1)

agreeing

2)

admitting

3)

allowing

4)

accepting

90

1)

agreement

2)

obligation

3)

requirement

4)

responsibility

91

1)

regarded

2)

respected

3)

thought

4)

found

92

1)

about

2)

with

3)

over

4)

into

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 93–99. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 93–99, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов. Запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Oliver Dermot

Oliver Dermot rose before six o’clock that morning. He had an early appointment. While he showered, he listened to the morning news. He was interested in economic news, that’s why political and sports news didn’t make him 93 ______ the volume. He was sure that Dermot Finance shares were unlikely to move dramatically either way, as only two other people were aware of his bankruptcy. Dermot was having breakfast with one of them at seven, and he would fire the other at eight.

By 6.40 am, Dermot had showered and dressed. He glanced at his reflection in the mirror. He 94 ______ he were a couple of inches taller, and a couple of inches thinner. He would also like to have grown his hair again, but not while there were so many people from his country who might still 95 ______ him.

96 ______ his father had been a tram conductor in Dublin, Oliver Dermot looked a real gentleman. Anyone who gave the perfectly dressed man a second 97 ______ as he stepped out of his house and into his chauffeur-driven limousine would have assumed that he had been born into the upper class establishment.

Dermot settled down in the back of his limousine. “The office,” he said before touching a button in the armrest. A smoked grey screen rose up, cutting off any unnecessary conversation between him and the driver. Dermot picked 98 ______ a copy of the New York Times from the seat beside him. He looked 99 ______ the pages to see if any particular headline would grab his attention.

93

1)

rise

2)

turn

3)

lift

4)

raise

94

1)

longed

2)

wished

3)

wanted

4)

willed

95

1)

recognise

2)

resemble

3)

remind

4)

recover

96

1)

Therefore

2)

However

3)

Although

4)

Moreover

97

1)

look

2)

glance

3)

stare

4)

view

98

1)

out

2)

up

3)

in

4)

off

99

1)

around

2)

over

3)

through

4)

away

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 100–106. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 100–106, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов. Запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Alexander Graham Bell

Alexander Graham Bell was a scientist, an engineer and an inventor who made a dramatic improvement to communication. We 100 ______ his name because he invented the telephone, but there are many other interesting facts about this scientist.

 Alexander Graham Bell was Scottish. His childhood was surrounded by science and experiments. His family was fond of communication and 101 ______ many efforts to improve and simplify communication. This created a deep interest in Alexander’s mind and he became very passionate about science.

He moved to Canada when he was 23 years old. He studied human voice and to gain experience, he worked at many schools for the hearing impaired. Alexander was an amazing piano player and he mastered it 102 ______ a very young age, which also helped him in his work.

His experiments with sounds and voices led him to experiment with various sound devices. Further, he worked on an acoustic model to develop a new communication device. He 103 ______ in his attempts and invented the first telephone. The first words spoken by Bell through the telephone were to his assistant. He said, “Mr. Watson, come here. I want to 104 ______ you!” His continuous research and experiments helped him improve the design of the telephone.

105 ______, he had a strong interest in related fields of science. He also took 106 ______ in medical research, looked for the alternative fuels and experimented with metals.

100

1)

remind

2)

review  

3)

revise  

4)

remember

101

1)

took

2)

spent

3)

made

4)

held

102

1)

to

2)

at

3)

on

4)

by

103

1)

managed

2)

fulfilled

3)

achieved

4)

succeeded

104

1)

see

2)

look

3)

watch

4)

glance

105

1)

Although

2)

Otherwise

3)

Moreover

4)

Therefore

106

1)

place

2)

time  

3)

part

4)

charge

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 107–113. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 107–113, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов. Запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

History of Christmas

Christmas is celebrated all many countries. Centuries ago plants and trees that 107 _______ green all year had a special meaning for people in the winter.

Germany is credited with starting the Christmas tree 108 _______ as we now know it. In the 16th century religious Christians 109 _______ fir trees into their homes. Some built Christmas pyramids of wood and 110 _______ them with evergreens and candles.

They 111 _______ that in the sixteen century Martin Luther, the reformer, first added lighted candles to a tree. Walking toward his home one winter evening, he was 112 _______ by the brilliance of stars twinkling amidst evergreens.
To recapture the scene for his family, he
113 _______ a tree with lighted candles on its branches in the main room.

107

1)

reminded

2)

survived

3)

remained

4)

continued

108

1)

tradition

2)

belief

3)

culture

4)

custom

109

1)

brought

2)

gave

3)

kept

4)

used

110

1)

renovated

2)

illuminated

3)

painted

4)

decorated

111

1)

speak

2)

say

3)

talk

4)

tell

112

1)

repressed

2)

expressed

3)

pressed

4)

impressed

113

1)

cut

2)

put

3)

bought

4)

grew

Прочитайте текст с пропусками, обозначенными номерами 114–120. Эти номера соответствуют заданиям 114–120, в которых представлены возможные варианты ответов. Запишите в поле ответа цифру 1, 2, 3 или 4, соответствующую выбранному Вами варианту ответа.

Plans for the future

Fred Simpson worked hard the last two years. His mother thought that he had spent too much time at work. Now he decided to take a month’s vacation in England before 114 ______ any firm decision about his future. He didn’t know what to do. He was in two minds whether to move to New York or to 115 ______ from the board of the firm. His girl-friend Maggie wanted him to move to New York. She hoped that they would marry and find a big house there. But Dan convinced him that was not the course of 116 ______ his father would have taken in the same circumstances. Dan appeared to take his friend’s defeat even harder than Fred himself.

Fred decided to let the incident 117 ______ without comment and invited Dan to join him and Maggie for dinner that night. Dan declined, claiming that he had a lot of letters to 118 ______ up on. Fred wouldn’t have given the refusal a second thought if Dan hadn’t been dining at the restaurant that night with their boss.

Fred, preoccupied with his departure for Europe, took less 119 ______ of his friend’s strange behavior than he might otherwise have taken. At the last moment Fred couldn’t face a month in England alone and asked Maggie to accompany him. To his surprise and delight she 120 ______.

114

1)

making

2)

having

3)

keeping

4)

getting

115

1)

resign

2)

remove

3)

leave

4)

remain

116

1)

activity

2)

approach

3)

action

4)

act

117

1)

pass

2)

come

3)

go

4)

fall

118

1)

run

2)

cover

3)

catch

4)

overtake

119

1)

excuse

2)

notice

3)

part

4)

place

120

1)

approved

2)

affirmed

3)

admitted

4)

agreed

Ответы к заданиям раздела 3 «Грамматика и лексика»

№ задания

Ответ

didnotknow; didn’tknow

worst

them

third

woulddestroy

havebecome; ‘vebecome

more

hasbeen

worst

leaving

him

faster

hadcrossed; wascrossing

won

are planning; plan

will be; ‘llbe; are

those

grew; were growing

returning

are used

higher

showing

was impressed

are sitting; ’re sitting; have been sitting; ’ve been sitting

was addressed

threw

them

would write

European

slowly

commercial

development

visitors

combination

contributions

accidentally

refrigeration

cooler

natural

difference

population

№ задания

Ответ

settlements

prestigious

annually

tourism

impossible

global

particularly

symbolize; symbolise

celebration

beautiful

unforgettable

has gone; went

caught; has caught

children

were called

more distracting

are focused

will become

climbers

successfully

easily

tourists

impossible

safety

moredangerous

us

willappear

’shad; hashad; had

using

first

isplaced

largely

travelers; travellers

combination

disadvantages

difference

wonderful

3

2

4

3

2

№ задания

Ответ

1

3

2

2

4

3

2

1

3

4

2

1

3

2

2

3

4

3

2

4

1

3

3

3

1

1

4

2

4

2

1

1

3

1

3

2

4

Раздел 4.

Письмо

Для ответов на задания 1–8 используйте дополнительный лист. Обратите внимание на необходимость соблюдения указанного объёма текста. Тексты недостаточного объёма, а также часть текста, превышающая требуемый объём, не оцениваются. Запишите сначала номер задания (1–8), а затем ответ на него. Если одной стороны бланка недостаточно, Вы можете использовать другую его сторону.

1

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend John who writes:

…My brother has just graduated from University. He is a lawyer now. What professions are the most prestigious in Russia? What kinds of money-making jobs in Russia do not require a university degree? Do you want to go to college, why or why not?

This summer we are going on a three-day bicycle trip…

Write a letter to John.

In your letter

  • answer his questions
  • ask 3 questions about the trip.

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

2

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Elisabeth who writes:

…Yesterday I finished reading a book about the 14th century England. What kinds of books do you like reading? What would you call the most interesting period in Russian history and why? If there were a time machine, what country and what period would you like to visit?

I got a puppy for my birthday this year!…

Write a letter to Elizabeth.

In your letter

  • answer her questions
  • ask 3 questions about her birthday this year.

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

3

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Ann who writes:

… This year I started learning French. It’s a beautiful language, but some French sounds are difficult to pronounce. When did you start learning a foreign language? Why did you choose English? What do you like most about your English class?

My elder sister started taking piano lessons last week …

Write a letter to Ann.

In your letter

  • answer her questions
  • ask 3 questions about her elder sister

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

4

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Amanda who writes:

… If you ask me who my best friend is, I’ll say – my Granny. She is so much fun to be with! Who is your best friend and what’s special about him or her? Do you prefer virtual or real communication, and why? What kind of people could never become your friends?

  I finally bought the new CD of my favourite singer …

Write a letter to Amanda.

In your letter

– answer her questions

– ask 3 questions about her favourite singer

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

5

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend George who writes:

… My family is planning a trip to Russia next summer. What places of interest should I visit in your country? What is the best way to travel around in Russia? What season is the best for travelling and why?  

I have decided to join the school football club.

Write a letter to George.

In your letter

  • answer his questions
  • ask 3 questions about the school football club.

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

6

You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Fran who writes:

… Yesterday I went shopping; I needed a birthday present for my best friend. What presents do you usually give to your friends on their birthdays? Where and how do you celebrate your birthdays? What can make this day really special for you?

 My German cousin is coming next week …

Write a letter to Fran.

In your letter

– answer her questions

–  ask 3 questions about her cousin

Write 100–140 words.

Remember the rules of letter writing.

7

Comment on the following statement.

Young people like travelling more than senior citizens.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

 make an introduction (state the problem)

 express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion

 express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion

 explain why you don’t agree with the opposing opinion

 make a conclusion restating your position

8

Comment on the following statement.

It’s important for high school students to study compulsory subjects, even if they don’t see any need for them in the near future.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

 make an introduction (state the problem)

 express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion

 express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion

 explain why you don’t agree with the opposing opinion

 make a conclusion restating your position

9

Comment on the following statement.

Healthy eating is all in the past.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

  • make an introduction (state the problem)
  • express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion
  • express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion
  • explain why you don’t agree with the opposing opinion
  • make a conclusion restating your position

10

Comment on the following statement.

There should be no homework at school.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

 make an introduction (state the problem)

 express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion

 express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion

 explain why you don’t agree with the opposing opinion

 make a conclusion restating your position

11

Comment on the following statement.

To get good marks at school one should forget about hobbies.

What is your opinion? Do you agree with this statement?

Write 200–250 words.

Use the following plan:

 make an introduction (state the problem)

 express your personal opinion and give 2–3 reasons for your opinion

 express an opposing opinion and give 1–2 reasons for this opposing opinion

 explain why you do not agree with the opposing opinion

 make a conclusion restating your position

Критерии оценивания выполнения заданий 1–4 в КИМ ЕГЭ  (максимум 6 баллов)

Баллы

Решение коммуникативной задачи

Организация текста

Языковое оформление
текста

К1

К2

К3

2

Задание выполнено полностью: содержание отражает все аспекты, указанные в задании (даны полные ответы на все вопросы, заданы три вопроса по указанной теме); стилевое оформление речи выбрано правильно с учётом цели высказывания и адресата; соблюдены принятые
в языке нормы вежливости

Высказывание логично; средства логической связи использованы правильно; текст верно разделён на абзацы; структурное оформление текста соответствует нормам, принятым в стране изучаемого языка

Используемый словарный запас и грамматические структуры соответствуют поставленной задаче; орфографические и пунктуационные ошибки практически отсутствуют (допускается не более двух негрубых лексико-грамматических ошибок или/и не более двух негрубых орфографических и пунктуационных ошибок)

1

Задание выполнено не полностью: содержание отражает не все аспекты, указанные в задании (более одного аспекта раскрыто не полностью, или один аспект полностью отсутствует); встречаются нарушения стилевого оформления речи или/и принятых
в языке норм вежливости

Высказывание не всегда логично; имеются недостатки/ошибки в использовании средств логической связи, их выбор ограничен; деление текста на абзацы нелогично/отсутствует; имеются отдельные нарушения принятых норм оформления личного письма

Имеются лексические и грамматические ошибки, не затрудняющие понимания текста; имеются орфографические и пунктуационные ошибки, не затрудняющие коммуникации (допускается не более четырёх негрубых лексико-грамматических ошибок или/и не более четырёх негрубых орфографических и пунктуационных ошибок)

0

Задание не выполнено: содержание не отражает тех аспектов, которые указаны в задании, или/и не соответствует требуемому объёму

Отсутствует логика
в построении высказывания, принятые нормы оформления личного письма не соблюдаются

Понимание текста затруднено из-за множества лексико-грамматических ошибок

Примечания.

1. Задания 1–4 (личное письмо) в КИМ ЕГЭ оцениваются по критериям К1–К3 (максимальное количество баллов – 6).

2. При получении учащимся 0 баллов по критерию «Содержание» задание оценивается в 0 баллов.

3. Если объём письма менее 90 слов, то задание оценивается в 0 баллов.

Если объём более 154 слов, то проверке подлежат только 140 слов, т.е. та часть личного письма, которая соответствует требуемому объёму.

4. При определении соответствия объёма представленной работы требованиям считаются все слова – с первого слова по последнее, включая вспомогательные глаголы, предлоги, артикли, частицы. В личном письме адрес, дата, подпись также подлежат подсчёту.

Критерии оценивания выполнения заданий 5–8 в КИМ ЕГЭ  (максимум 14 баллов)

Баллы

Решение коммуникативной задачи

Организация текста

К1

К2

3

Задание выполнено полностью: содержание отражает все аспекты, указанные в задании; стилевое оформление речи выбрано правильно (соблюдается нейтральный стиль)

Высказывание логично, структура текста соответствует предложенному плану, средства логической связи использованы правильно, текст разделён на абзацы

2

Задание выполнено: некоторые аспекты, указанные в задании, раскрыты не полностью; имеются отдельные нарушения стилевого оформления речи

Высказывание в основном логично, имеются отдельные отклонения от плана в структуре высказывания, имеются отдельные недостатки при использовании средств логической связи, имеются отдельные недостатки при делении текста на абзацы

1

Задание выполнено не полностью: содержание отражает не все аспекты, указанные в задании; нарушения стилевого оформления речи встречаются достаточно часто

Высказывание не всегда логично, есть значительные отклонения от предложенного плана; имеются многочисленные ошибки
в использовании средств логической связи, их выбор ограничен; деление текста на абзацы отсутствует

0

Задание не выполнено: содержание не отражает тех аспектов, которые указаны в задании, или/и не соответствует требуемому объёму, или/и более 30% ответа имеет непродуктивный характер (т. е. текстуально совпадает с опубликованным источником или другими экзаменационными работами)

Отсутствует логика в построении высказывания, предложенный план ответа не соблюдается

Баллы

Лексика

Грамматика

Орфография
и пунктуация

К3

К4

К5

3

Используемый словарный запас соответствует поставленной коммуникативной задаче, практически нет нарушений в использовании лексики

Используются грамматические структуры в соответствии с поставленной коммуникативной задачей. Практически отсутствуют ошибки (допускается одна-две негрубые ошибки)

2

Используемый словарный запас соответствует поставленной коммуникативной задаче, однако встречаются отдельные неточности
в употреблении слов (две-три), либо словарный запас ограничен, но лексика использована правильно

Имеется ряд грамматических ошибок, не затрудняющих понимания текста (не более четырёх)

Орфографические ошибки практически отсутствуют. Текст разделён на предложения
с правильным пунктуационным оформлением

1

Использован неоправданно ограниченный словарный запас; часто встречаются нарушения в использовании лексики, некоторые из них могут затруднять понимание текста (не более четырёх)

Многочисленны ошибки элементарного уровня, либо ошибки немногочисленны, но затрудняют понимание текста (допускается шесть-семь ошибок трёх-четырёх разделах грамматики)

Имеется ряд орфографических или/и пунктуационных ошибок, в том числе те, которые незначительно затрудняют понимание текста (не более четырёх)

0

Крайне ограниченный словарный запас не позволяет выполнить поставленную задачу

Грамматические правила не соблюдаются, ошибки затрудняют понимание текста

Правила орфографии и пунктуации не соблюдаются

Примечания.

1. Задания 5–8 (развернутое письменное высказывание с элементами рассуждения «Мое мнение») в КИМ ЕГЭ оцениваются по критериям К1–К5 (максимальное количество баллов – 14).

2. При получении учащимся 0 баллов по критерию «Решение коммуникативной задачи» задание оценивается в 0 баллов.

3. Если объём письма менее 90 слов, то задание оценивается в 0 баллов.

Если объём более 154 слов, то проверке подлежат только 140 слов, т.е. та часть личного письма, которая соответствует требуемому объёму.

4. При определении соответствия объёма представленной работы требованиям считаются все слова – с первого слова по последнее, включая вспомогательные глаголы, предлоги, артикли, частицы.

5. Критерий «Орфография и пунктуация» в разделе «Письмо» оценивается в 2 балла.

Раздел 5.

Говорение

КИМ устной части содержит четыре задания: чтение текста вслух, условный диалог-расспрос, тематическое монологическое высказывание на определенную тему по предложенному плану и монологическое высказывание с элементами сравнения и рассуждения по предложенному плану, т.е. все задания строятся на вербальных опорах и не включают зрительную наглядность. Экзаменационные материалы устной части также оформляются рельефно-точечным шрифтом Брайля.

Кроме того, устная часть для участников с ОВЗ по зрению имеет следующие особенности:

  • общее время сдачи устной части экзамена – 45 минут (включая увеличение продолжительности устной части ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам на 30 мин.);
  • нет ограничений по времени подготовки и ответа на каждое задание, однако рекомендуется не превышать указанное в инструкции время на ответ, а дополнительное время использовать для подготовки и отдыха между заданиями;
  • переход от задания (этапа подготовки) к ответу осуществляется по кнопке;
  • завершение ответа осуществляется по кнопке;
  • кнопку перехода может нажимать участник самостоятельно или ассистент по его просьбе;
  • кнопки перехода выполнены на русском языке.

УСТНАЯ ЧАСТЬ ЕГЭ ПО АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ

Устная часть КИМ ЕГЭ по английскому языку включает в себя
4 задания.

Задание 1 – чтение вслух небольшого текста научно-популярного характера.  

В задании 2 предлагается ознакомиться с ситуацией
и задать пять вопросов на основе ключевых слов.  
         В задании 3 предлагается высказаться на определенную тему с опорой на план – создать тематическое монологическое высказывание.  

В задании 4 ставится задача создать монологическое высказывание с элементами рассуждения на основе сравнения с опорой на план и высказать свое мнение по предложенному сравнению.  

Каждое последующее задание выдаётся после окончания выполнения предыдущего задания. Всё время ответа ведётся аудио- и видеозапись.

Вариант 1

1

Task 1. Imagine that you are preparing a project with your friend. You have found some interesting material for the presentation and you want to read this text to your friend. You have 1.5 minutes to read the text silently, then be ready to read it out aloud.

There aren’t many birds around in winter. Most have left your area. Those that stay are not as active. Activity uses energy that is needed to keep warm.

The worst problems for birds in winter are getting enough heat and holding on to the heat once it is made. These are problems for all birds. But it is especially true for very small ones. They cannot find enough food. The weather stays so cold for so long that they cannot eat enough to keep alive. But birds have many ways of fighting the cold.

You shiver to keep warm.  The heat that you make is made mostly in your muscles. The muscles make more heat when they are active. So one way of keeping warm is to move about, use your muscles. Another way is to shiver. When your body needs heat, the muscles tighten and loosen quickly. They become active. Just as you shiver to keep warm, so do birds.

2

Task 2. 

You are considering visiting Paris and now you’d like to get more information about the trip. You are to ask five direct questions to find out
about the following:

1) dates for departures

2) hotel facilities

3) English-speaking guide

4) number of city tours

5) discounts

3

Task 3. 

Give a talk on holidays and celebrations.

In your talk remember to speak about:

  • the most important holidays in the UK and the USA you know
  • important dates celebrated in these countries
  • customs and traditions connected with the celebrations of different holidays and dates in these countries
  • the most important Russian holidays and celebrations
  • the favourite holidays of your family

You have to talk continuously (12–15 sentences).

4

Task 4. Give a talk comparing and contrasting the professions of a teacher of English and a translator/interpreter.

In your talk remember to speak about:

  • give a brief description of the professions
  • say what the professions have in common
  • say in what way the professions are different
  • say which of these professions you’d prefer
  • explain why

You have to talk continuously (12–15 sentences).

Вариант 2

1

Task 1. Imagine that you are preparing a project with your friend. You have found some interesting material for the presentation and you want to read this text to your friend. Read the text silently, then read it out aloud.

2

Task 2. Study the advertisement.

You are considering taking the singing lessons and now you’d like to get more information about it. You are to ask five direct questions to find out about the following:

1) kinds of singing taught

2) duration of a lesson

3) tuition fee

4) experienced teachers

5) evening classes

3

Task 3.

Give a talk on a famous Russian.

In your talk remember to speak about:

  • the biography of the person
  • what he/she is famous for
  • why this achievement is still important today
  • how you got to know about this person
  • whether children should learn about this person at school

You have to talk continuously (12–15 sentences).

4

Task 4.

Give a talk comparing and contrasting life in a big city and in the country.

In your talk remember to:

  • give a brief description of these lifestyles
  • say what they have in common
  • say in what way they are different
  • say which of these lifestyles you’d prefer
  • explain why

You have to talk continuously (12–15 sentences).

Критерии оценивания выполнения заданий устной части

(максимум 20 баллов за весь раздел)

Задание 1 (Чтение текста вслух) – максимум 1 балл

1

0

Фонетическая сторона речи

Речь воспринимается легко: необоснованные паузы отсутствуют; фразовое ударение и интонационные контуры, произношение слов  без нарушений нормы: допускается не более пяти фонетических ошибок, в том числе одна-две ошибки, искажающие смысл

Речь воспринимается с трудом из-за большого количества неестественных пауз, запинок, неверной расстановки ударений и ошибок в произношении слов, ИЛИ сделано более пяти фонетических ошибок, ИЛИ сделано три и более фонетические ошибки, искажающие смысл

Задание 2 (максимум – 5 баллов). Оценивается отдельно каждый из пяти задаваемых вопросов.

1

0

Вопросы
1–5

Вопрос по содержанию отвечает поставленной задаче; имеет правильную грамматическую форму прямого вопроса; возможные фонетические и лексические погрешности не затрудняют восприятия

Вопрос не задан, или заданный вопрос по содержанию не отвечает поставленной задаче И/ИЛИ не имеет правильной грамматической формы прямого вопроса И/ИЛИ фонетические и лексические ошибки препятствуют коммуникации

Задания 3 и 4 – 7 баллов за одно задание (максимум – 14 баллов).

Баллы

Решение коммуникативной задачи (содержание)*

Организация высказывания

Языковое оформление высказывания

3

Коммуникативная задача выполнена полностью: содержание полно, точно и развёрнуто отражает все аспекты, указанные в задании
(12-15 фраз)

2

Коммуникативная задача выполнена частично: один аспект не раскрыт (остальные раскрыты полно), ИЛИ один-два раскрыты неполно

(9-11 фраз)

Высказывание логично и имеет завершённый характер; имеются вступительная и заключительная фразы, соответствующие теме. Средства логической связи используются правильно

Используемый словарный запас, грамматические структуры, фонетическое оформление высказывания соответствуют поставленной задаче (допускается не более двух негрубых лексико-грамматических ошибок  И/ИЛИ не более двух негрубых фонетических ошибок)

1

Коммуникативная задача выполнена не полностью: два аспекта не раскрыты (остальные раскрыты полно), ИЛИ все аспекты раскрыты неполно (6-8 фраз)

Высказывание в основном логично
и имеет достаточно завершённый характер, НО отсутствует вступительная И/ИЛИ заключительная фраза, И/ИЛИ средства логической связи используются недостаточно

Используемый словарный запас, грамматические структуры, фонетическое оформление высказывания в основном соответствуют поставленной задаче (допускается не более четырёх лексико-грамматических ошибок (из них не более двух грубых) ИЛИ/И не более четырёх фонетических ошибок (из них не более двух грубых)

0

Коммуникативная задача выполнена менее чем на 50%: три и более аспектов содержания не раскрыты (5 и менее фраз)

Высказывание нелогично И/ИЛИ не имеет завершенного характера; вступительная и заключительная фразы отсутствуют; средства логической связи практически не используются

Понимание высказывания затруднено из-за многочисленных лексико-грамматических и фонетических ошибок (пять и более лексико-грамматических ошибок И/ИЛИ пять и более фонетических ошибок) ИЛИ более двух грубых ошибок

*Примечание. При получении экзаменуемым 0 баллов по критерию «Решение коммуникативной задачи» всё задание оценивается в
0 баллов.

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