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Cisco CCNA 1 ITN v6.0 final Exam Answers Routing and Switching (R&S) Introduction to Networks (ITN) (Version 6.00) collection year 2017, 2018 and 2019 Full 100%. CCNA 1 has been know as ITN. The following are the questions exam answers. Guarantee Passed 100%. CCNA 1 v6.0 final exam answers has some new update from the old version 5.1. You can review all final Exam Answers. You will get passed scored 100% with this version 6.0. Good Luck for Cisco Netacad ITN v6.0 Exam!

Noted: There are 3 forms of Final Exam. In this page we have collected all 3 forms. You will random from these question which 55 to 60 questions.

March, 2019 New Update for CCNA 1 v6.0 Final Exam

1. What is an example of a top-level domain?

   • www.cisco.com
   • cisco.com
   • .com
   • root.cisco.com
     Explanation:

     Top-level domains represent a country or type of organization, such as .com or .edu.

2. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

   • They are sent to a select group of hosts.
   • They are sent to all hosts on a network.
   • They must be acknowledged.
   • They are sent to a single destination.
     Explanation:

     Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages are addressed to a specific multicast group.

3. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?

   • show interfaces
   • show running-config
   • show ip interface brief​
   • show mac-address-table
     Explanation:

     The show interfaces command can be used on both routers and switches to see speed, duplex, media type, MAC address, port type, and other Layer 1/Layer 2-related information.

4. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?

   • memory buffers
   • vty lines
   • Syslog server
   • console line 
     Explanation:

     Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

5.  Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?

   • terminal monitor
   • logging console
   • logging buffered
   • logging synchronous
     Explanation:

     Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

6. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?

   • The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
   • Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
   • The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254.
   • The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
     Explanation:

     When a Windows PC cannot communicate with an IPv4 DHCP server, the computer automatically assigns an IP address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. Any other device on the same network that receives an address in the same range is reachable.​

7. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute command is issued?

   • the highest configured IP address on the router
   • a loopback IP address
   • the IP address of the outbound interface
   • the lowest configured IP address on the router
     Explanation:

     When sending an echo request message, a router will use the IP address of the exit interface as the source IP address. This default behavior can be changed by using an extended ping and specifying a specific source IP address.

8. A user is unable to reach the web site when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?

   • default gateway
   • DHCP
   • DNS
   • TCP/IP protocol stack
     Explanation:

     Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to translate a web address to an IP address. The address of the DNS server is provided via DHCP to host computers.​

9. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?

   • a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
   • a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
   • a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users
   • a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure
     Explanation:

     Fault tolerant networks limit the impact of a failure because the networks are built in a way that allows for quick recovery when such a failure occurs. These networks depend on multiple or redundant paths between the source and destination of a message.
     A scalable network can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users.
     Quality of service (QoS) is a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users.

10. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

    • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
    • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
    • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
    • financial transactions, audio conference, web page
      Explanation:

      QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

11. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

    • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
    • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
    • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
    • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
      Explanation:

      Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

12. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

    • It interacts with the device hardware.
    • It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
    • It provides dedicated firewall services.
    • It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
      Explanation:

      Most operating systems contain a shell and a kernel. The kernel interacts with the hardware and the shell interfaces between the kernel and the users.

13. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection
      Explanation:

      A CLI session using Secure Shell (SSH) provides enhanced security because SSH supports strong passwords and encryption during the transport of session data. The other methods support authentication but not encryption.

14. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

    • The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.
    • The command syntax is wrong.
    • The subnet mask information is incorrect.
    • The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.
      Explanation:

      The wrong mode of operation is being used. The CLI prompt indicates that the mode of operation is global configuration. IP addresses must be configured from interface configuration mode, as indicated by the SanJose(config-if)# prompt.

15. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

    • to restart the ping process
    • to interrupt the ping process
    • to exit to a different configuration mode
    • to allow the user to complete the command
      Explanation:

      To interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute, a user enters the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination. Tab completes the remainder of parameters or arguments within a command. To exit from configuration mode to privileged mode use the Ctrl-Z keystroke. CTRL-R will redisplay the line just typed, thus making it easier for the user to press Enter and reissue the ping command.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

    

    • letmein
    • secretin
    • lineconin
    • linevtyin
      Explanation:

      Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

17. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

    • FastEthernet0/1
    • VLAN 1
    • vty 0
    • console 0
      Explanation:

      Interface VLAN 1 is a virtual interface on a switch, called SVI (switch virtual interface). Configuring an IP address on the default SVI, interface VLAN 1, will allow a switch to be accessed remotely. The VTY line must also be configured to allow remote access, but an IP address cannot be configured on this line.

18. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

    • TCP
    • IP
    • HTTP
    • Ethernet
      Explanation:

      TCP is a Layer 4 protocol of the OSI model. TCP has several responsibilities in the network communication process. It divides large messages into smaller segments which are more efficient to send across the network. It also controls the size and rate of segments exchanged between clients and servers.

19. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

    • A company can monopolize the market.
    • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
    • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
    • It encourages competition and promotes choices.
      Explanation:

      A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

20. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

    • It assists in protocol design.
    • It speeds up packet delivery.
    • It prevents designers from creating their own model.
    • It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
    • It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
      Explanation:

      Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols. Today, if a device is to communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model. The benefits of using a layered model are as follows:

      • assists in protocol design
      • fosters competition between vendors
      • prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
      • provides a common language for describing network functionality
      • helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each layer

21. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

    • data link
    • network
    • physical
    • session
    • transport
      Explanation:

      The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI session layer (with the presentation layer) is included within the TCP/IP application layer.

22. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

    • bits
    • data
    • frame
    • packet
    • segment
      Explanation:

      Application data is passed down the protocol stack on its way to be transmitted across the network media. During the process, various protocols add information to it at each level. At each stage of the process, a PDU (protocol data unit) has a different name to reflect its new functions. The PDUs are named according to the protocols of the TCP/IP suite:

      • Data – The general term for the PDU used at the application layer.
      • Segment – transport layer PDU
      • Packet – network layer PDU
      • Frame – data link layer PDU
      • Bits – A physical layer PDU used when physically transmitting data over the medium

23. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

    • presentation layer
    • network layer
    • physical layer
    • data link layer
      Explanation:

      The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC encodes the frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This is the responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or radio waves.

24. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
      Explanation:

      Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

25. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

    • cancellation
    • cladding
    • immunity to electrical hazards
    • woven copper braid or metallic foil
      Explanation:

      Cladding and immunization from electrical hazards are characteristics for fiber-optic cabling. A woven copper braid or metallic foil is used as a shield for the inner coaxial cable conductor. Cancellation is a property of UTP cabling where two wires are located adjacent to one another so each magnetic field cancels out the adjacent magnetic field.

26. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

    • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
    • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
    • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
    • It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
    • It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.
      Explanation:

      Fiber-optic cabling supports higher bandwidth than UTP for longer distances. Fiber is immune to EMI and RFI, but costs more, requires more skill to install, and requires more safety precautions.

27. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

    • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
    • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
    • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
    • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
      Explanation:

      The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the frame and identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.

28. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?

    • mesh
    • partial mesh
    • hub and spoke
    • point-to-point
      Explanation:

      Partial mesh topologies provide high availability by interconnecting multiple remote sites, but do not require a connection between all remote sites. A mesh topology requires point-to-point links with every system being connected to every other system. A point-to-point topology is where each device is connected to one other device. A hub and spoke uses a central device in a star topology that connects to other point-to-point devices.

29. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

    • CSMA/CD
    • priority ordering
    • CSMA/CA
    • token passing
      Explanation:

      Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media access control.

30. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

    • error correction through a collision detection method
    • session control using port numbers
    • data link layer addressing
    • placement and removal of frames from the media
    • detection of errors through CRC calculations
    • delimiting groups of bits into frames
    • conversion of bits into data signals
      Explanation:

      Through the framing process, delimiters are used to identify the start and end of the sequence of bits that make up a frame. Data link layer addressing is added to enable a frame to be delivered to a destination node. A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) field is calculated on every bit and added to the frame. If the CRC value contained in the arriving frame is the same as the one the receiving node creates, the frame will be processed.

31. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

    • It will discard the frame.
    • It will forward the frame to the next host.
    • It will remove the frame from the media.
    • It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
      Explanation:

      In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks every arriving frame to see if the destination MAC address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If there is no match, the device discards the frame. If there is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the next OSI layer.

32. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

    • cut-through switching
    • store-and-forward switching
    • fragment-free switching
    • fast-forward switching
      Explanation:

      Fast-forward and fragment-free switching are variations of cut-through switching, which begins to forward the frame before the entire frame is received.

33. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

    

    • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
    • 172.168.10.99
    • CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
    • 172.168.10.65
    • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
    • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
      Explanation:

      When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

34. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

    • destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
    • destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
    • destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
    • destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
      Explanation:

      ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, works by mapping a destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address. The host knows the destination IPv4 address and uses ARP to resolve the corresponding destination MAC address.

35. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

    • performing error detection
    • routing packets toward the destination
    • encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
    • placement of frames on the media
    • collision detection
      Explanation:

      The OSI network layer provides several services to allow communication between devices:

      • addressing
      • encapsulation
      • routing
      • de-encapsulation

      Error detection, placing frames on the media, and collision detection are all functions of the data ink layer.

36. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

    • to store the routing table
    • to retain contents when power is removed
    • to store the startup configuration file
    • to contain the running configuration file
    • to store the ARP table
      Explanation:

      NVRAM is permanent memory storage, so the startup configuration file is preserved even if the router loses power.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

    

    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.
    • The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.
      Explanation:

      Until both the password password and the login commands are entered in console line configuration mode, no password is required to gain access to enable mode.

38. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

    • 192.0.2.199
    • 198.51.100.201
    • 203.0.113.211
    • 209.165.201.223
      Explanation:

      Each section (octet) contains eight binary digits. Each digit represents a specific value (128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1). Everywhere there is a 1, the specific value is relevant. Add all relevant values in a particular octet to obtain the decimal value. For example binary 11001011 equals 203 in decimal.

39. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

    • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
    • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
    • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
    • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
    • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
    • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
      Explanation:

      Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These types of messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer addresses. A multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.

40. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

    • 10.0.0.0/8
    • 64.100.0.0/14
    • 127.16.0.0/12
    • 172.16.0.0/12
    • 192.31.7.0/24
    • 192.168.0.0/16
      Explanation:

      The private IP address blocks that are used inside companies are as follows:

      • 10.0.0.0 /8 (any address that starts with 10 in the first octet)
      • 172.16.0.0 /12 (any address that starts with 172.16 in the first two octets through 172.31.255.255)
      • 192.168.0.0 /16 (any address that starts with 192.168 in the first two octets)

41. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

    • It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
    • It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
    • It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
    • It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.
    • It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.
      Explanation:

      NAT64 is typically used in IPv6 when networks are being transitioned from IPv4 to IPv6. It allows the IPv6 networks to connect to IPv4 networks (such as the Internet), and works by translating the IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

42. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

    • 2001:0:abcd::1
    • 2001:0:0:abcd::1
    • 2001::abcd::1
    • 2001:0000:abcd::1
    • 2001::abcd:0:1
      Explanation:

      The IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001 in its most compressed format would be 2001:0:0:abcd::1. The first two hextets of zeros would each compress to a single zero. The three consecutive hextets of zeros can be compressed to a double colon ::. The three leading zeros in the last hextet can be removed. The double colon :: can only be used once in an address.

43. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

    • FEC0::/10
    • FDEE::/7
    • FE80::/10
    • FF00::/8
      Explanation:

      Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

44. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

    • 254
    • 190
    • 192
    • 62
    • 64
      Explanation:

      When a /26 mask is used, 6 bits are used as host bits. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices.

45. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?

    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
      Explanation:

      The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally, 255.255.255.240 represents 4 host bits.

46. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

    • 192.168.1.64/26
    • 192.168.1.32/27
    • 192.168.1.32/28
    • 192.168.1.64/29
      Explanation:

      For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

47. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.
      Explanation:

      In variable-length subnet masking, bits are borrowed to create subnets. Additional bits may be borrowed to create additional subnets within the original subnets. This may continue until there are no bits available to borrow.

48. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

    • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
    • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
    • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
    • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
      Explanation:

      The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

49. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?

    • the destination IP address
    • the destination port number
    • the source IP address
    • the source port number
      Explanation:

      Each web browser client application opens a randomly generated port number in the range of the registered ports and uses this number as the source port number in the datagram that it sends to a server. The server then uses this port number as the destination port number in the reply datagram that it sends to the web browser. The PC that is running the web browser application receives the datagram and uses the destination port number that is contained in this datagram to identify the client application.

50. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

    • to identify missing segments at the destination
    • to reassemble the segments at the remote location
    • to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
    • to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
    • to determine if the packet changed during transit

51. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

    • compression
    • addressing
    • encryption
    • session control
    • authentication
      Explanation:

      The presentation layer deals with common data format. Encryption, formatting, and compression are some of the functions of the layer. Addressing occurs in the network layer, session control occurs in the session layer, and authentication takes place in the application or session layer.

52. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

    • wireless networking
    • social networking without the Internet
    • network printing using a print server
    • resource sharing without a dedicated server
      Explanation:

      The peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model allows data, printer, and resource sharing without a dedicated server.​​

53. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

    • tracert
    • ipconfig
    • netstat
    • nslookup
      Explanation:

      Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

54. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?

    • www.cisco.com
    • cisco.com
    • .com
    • root.cisco.com
    • Explanation:

      Top-level domains represent a country or type of organization, such as .com or .edu.

55. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?

    • The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
    • The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
    • The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
    • The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
      Explanation:

      When a DCHP address is issued to a host, it is for a specific lease time. Once the lease expires, the address is returned to the DHCP pool.

56. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

    • FTP
    • HTTP
    • DHCP
    • ICMP
    • SNMP
      Explanation:

      The DHCP protocol is used to request, issue, and manage IP addressing information. CSMA/CD is the access method used with wired Ethernet. ICMP is used to test connectivity. SNMP is used with network management and FTP is used for file transfer.

57. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

    • malware that was written to look like a video game
    • malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
    • malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
    • malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
      Explanation:

      A Trojan horse is malicious code that has been written specifically to look like a legitimate program. This is in contrast to a virus, which simply attaches itself to an actual legitimate program. Viruses require manual intervention from a user to spread from one system to another, while a worm is able to spread automatically between systems by exploiting vulnerabilities on those devices.

58. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

    • exec-timeout 30
    • service password-encryption
    • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
    • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
      Explanation:

      The login block-for command sets a limit on the maximum number of failed login attempts allowed within a defined period of time. If this limit is exceeded, no further logins are allowed for the specified period of time. This helps to mitigate brute-force password cracking since it will significantly increase the amount of time required to crack a password. The exec-timeout command specifies how long the session can be idle before the user is disconnected. The service password-encryption command encrypts the passwords in the running configuration. The banner motd command displays a message to users who are logging in to the device.

59. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)

    • Question
      
    • Answer
      

60. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

    

    • Question
      
    • Answer
      

      Explanation:

      Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

61. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

    • LAN
    • MAN
    • WAN
    • WLAN
      Explanation:

      A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users and network resources over a limited geographic area using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN) serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area network (WAN) connects networks together over a large geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the globe.

62. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

    • DSL
    • dial-up
    • satellite
    • cell modem
    • cable modem

63. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?

    • by limiting the impact of a network failure
    • by allowing quick recovery from network failures
    • by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic
    • by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users
      Explanation:

      Quality of service (QoS), is a vital component of the architecture of a network. With QoS, network administrators can provide applications with predictable and measurable service guarantees through mechanisms that manage congested network traffic.

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
      Explanation:

      With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of the current operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is restarted.

65. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

    

    • letmein
      
    • secretin
      
    • lineconin
      
    • linevtyin  
      Explanation:

      Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

66. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

    • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
    • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
    • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
    • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
      Explanation:

      Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will cause the IOS to complete the rest of the command.

67. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?

    • internet
    • transport
    • network access
    • session
      Explanation:

      The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is responsible for routing messages. The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model but is rather part of the OSI model.

68. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

    • Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
    • Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
    • Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
    • Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
      Explanation:

      When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport layer sends segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the network access layer, which creates frames and then converts the frames to bits. The bits are released to the network media.

69. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?

    • host address
    • IP address
    • MAC address
    • network address
      Explanation:

      The MAC address is a 48-bit address that is burned into every Ethernet NIC. Each MAC address is unique throughout the world.

70. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

    • requiring proper grounding connections
    • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
    • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
    • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
    • avoiding sharp bends during installation
      Explanation:

      In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire. Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel the crosstalk. The other options are effective measures to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI, but not crosstalk.

71. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

    • An IP address is added.
    • The logical address is added.
    • The physical address is added.
    • The process port number is added.
      Explanation:

      The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination physical address. The trailer includes a CRC value in the Frame Check Sequence field to allow the receiving device to determine if the frame has been changed (has errors) during the transmission.

72. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

    • They are globally unique.
    • They are routable on the Internet.
    • They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
    • MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
    • MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.
      Explanation:

      An Ethernet MAC address is a 48-bit binary value expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. MAC addresses must be globally unique by design. MAC addresses are in flat structure and thus they are not routable on the Internet. Serial interfaces do not use MAC addresses.

73. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?

    • drop the frame
    • process the frame as it is
    • send an error message to the sending device
    • add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it
      Explanation:

      Ethernet standards define the minimum frame size as 64 bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes is considered a “collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically discarded by receiving devices.

74. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

    • The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
    • The destination address is unknown to the switch.
    • The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
    • The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
    • The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
      Explanation:

      A switch will flood a frame out of every port, except the one that the frame was received from, under two circumstances. Either the frame has the broadcast address as the destination address, or the destination address is unknown to the switch.

75. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free
    • fast-forward
      Explanation:

      Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after reading the destination MAC address, resulting in the lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding. Store-and-forward has the highest latency because it reads the entire frame before beginning to forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-forward are types of cut-through switching.

76. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

    • netstat -s
    • route print
    • show ip route
    • netstat -r
    • tracert
      Explanation:

      On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –scommand is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

77. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

    • packet forwarding
    • microsegmentation
    • domain name resolution
    • path selection
    • flow control

78. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010
    • 11011010
      Explanation:

      When converted, CA in hex is equivalent to 11011010 in binary. One way to do the conversion is one nibble at a time, C = 1100 and A = 1010. Combine the two nibbles gives 11001010.

79. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

    • link-local
    • unique local
    • site local
    • global unicast
      Explanation:

      All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the interface as required.

80. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?

    • stateful DHCPv6
    • SLAAC
    • static IPv6 addressing
    • stateless DHCPv6
      Explanation:

      Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of the network. From this information the PC can then create its own IPv6 global unicast address.

81. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

    • It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
    • It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
    • It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.
      Explanation:

      The address ::1 is an IPv6 loopback address. Using the command ping ::1 tests the internal IP stack to ensure that it is configured and functioning correctly. It does not test reachability to any external device, nor does it confirm that IPv6 addresses are properly configured on the host.

82. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

    • 256
    • 254
    • 62
    • 30
    • 16
    • 32
      Explanation:

      A /27 mask is the same as 255.255.255.224. This leaves 5 host bits. With 5 host bits, 32 IP addresses are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and one address represents the broadcast address. Thus, 30 addresses can then be used to assign to network devices.

83. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252
      Explanation:

      If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks. ​

84. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
      Explanation:

      In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices. The mask associated with leaving 6 host bits for addressing is 255.255.255.192.

85. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

    • default window size
    • connectionless communication
    • port numbering
    • 3-way handshake
    • ability to to carry digitized voice
    • use of checksum
      Explanation:

      Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

86. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

    • to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
    • to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
    • to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
    • to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
    • to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

87. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

    • DNS
    • Ethernet
    • IP
    • POP
    • TCP
    • UDP
      Explanation:

      The application layer is the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Application layer protocols include HTTP, DNS, HTML, TFTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and SMTP.

88. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?

    • Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
    • Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.
    • A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server network.
    • A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server be present.
      Explanation:

      Data transfer speeds depend on a number of factors including the amount of traffic, the quality of service imposed, and the network media. Transfer speeds are not dependent on the network model type. File transfers can occur using the client-server model or the peer-to-peer model. A data transfer between a device acting in the client role and a device acting in the server role can occur in both peer-to-peer and client-server networks.

89. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?

    • peer-to-peer
    • master-slave
    • client/server
    • point-to-point
      Explanation:

      In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a dedicated server.

90. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?

    • DNS
    • DHCP
    • FTP
    • SNMP
      Explanation:

      When a client attempts to connect to a website, the destination URL must be resolved to an IP address. To do this the client queries a Domain Name System (DNS) server.

91. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

    • a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
    • a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
    • an increase in host-to-host ping response times
    • a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
      Explanation:

      While analyzing historical reports an administrator can compare host-to-host timers from the ping command and depict possible latency issues.​

92. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?

    • stateful packet inspection
    • URL filtering
    • application filtering
    • packet filtering
      Explanation:

      Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that incoming packets are actually legitimate responses to requests originating from hosts inside the network. Packet filtering can be used to permit or deny access to resources based on IP or MAC address. Application filtering can permit or deny access based on port number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny access based on URL or on keywords.

93. Fill in the blank.

    During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a   Multicast       message.

94. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

    • DSL
    • dialup
    • satellite
    • leased line
    • cable modem

95. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

    • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
    • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
    • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
    • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
      Explanation:

      With the development of technology, companies can now consolidate disparate networks onto one platform called a converged network. In a converged network, voice, video, and data travel over the same network, thus eliminating the need to create and maintain separate networks. This also reduces the costs associated with providing and maintaining the communication network infrastructure.

96. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

    • reliability
    • scalability
    • quality of service
    • accessibility
      Explanation:

      Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new users and services, without impacting existing users and services. This ability to grow is known as scalability.

97. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

    • flash
    • ROM
    • NVRAM
    • RAM
    • the configuration register
    • a TFTP server

98. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

    

    • The banner message is too long.
    • The delimiting character appears in the banner message.
    • The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
    • Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

99. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

    • It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
    • It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
    • It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
    • It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
    • It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
    • It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
      Explanation:

      Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). SVIs are created in software since there is no physical hardware associated with them. Virtual interfaces provide a means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using IP. Each switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-the-box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.

100. A technician configures a switch with these commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

     SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

     SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician configuring?

     • Telnet access
     • SVI
     • password encryption
     • physical switchport access
       Explanation:

       For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be configured. This allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.

101. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

     • to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
     • to interpret information
     • to break large messages into smaller frames
     • to negotiate correct timing for successful communication
       Explanation:

       Before a message is sent across a network it must first be encoded. Encoding is the process of converting the data message into another format suitable for transmission across the physical medium. Each bit of the message is encoded into a pattern of sounds, light waves, or electrical impulses depending on the network media over which the bits are transmitted. The destination host receives and decodes the signals in order to interpret the message.

102. What is the process of dividing a data stream into smaller pieces before transmission?

     • segmentation
     • encapsulation
     • encoding
     • flow control
       Explanation:

       Data streams would cause significant network congestion if they were transmitted as a single large stream of bits. To increase efficiency, data streams are segmented into smaller more manageable pieces which are then transmitted over the network.

103. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?

     • DNS server address
     • subnet mask
     • default gateway
     • DHCP server address
       Explanation:

       There are several components that need to be entered when configuring IPv4 for an end device:

       • IPv4 address – uniquely identifies an end device on the network
       • Subnet mask – determines the network address portion and host portion for an IPv4 address
       • Default gateway – the IP address of the router interface used for communicating with hosts in another network
       • DNS server address – the IP address of the Domain Name System (DNS) server

       DHCP server address (if DHCP is used) is not configured manually on end devices. It will be provided by a DHCP server when an end device requests an IP address.

104. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

     • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
     • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
     • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
     • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
     • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
     • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
       Explanation:

       Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

105. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

     • console
     • rollover
     • crossover
     • straight-through
       Explanation:

       A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to connect to a router or switch console port. A straight-through (also called patch) cable is usually used to interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices together, for example, between two switches, two routers, and two hosts.

106. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

     • building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
     • using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
     • forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
     • utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
     • examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
       Explanation:

       Important actions that a switch performs are as follows:

       • When a frame comes in, the switch examines the Layer 2 source address to build and maintain the Layer 2 MAC address table.
       • It examines the Layer 2 destination address to determine how to forward the frame. When the destination address is in the MAC address table, then the frame is sent out a particular port. When the address is unknown, the frame is sent to all ports that have devices connected to that network.

107. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

     • store-and-forward switching
     • fast-forward switching
     • CRC switching
     • fragment-free switching
     • QOS switching
       Explanation:

       Store-and forward switching accepts the entire frame and performs error checking using CRC before forwarding the frame. Store-and-forward is often required for QOS analysis. Fast-forward and fragment-free are both variations of the cut-through switching method where only part of the frame is received before the switch begins to forward it.

108. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

     • source and destination MAC
     • source and destination application protocol
     • source and destination port number
     • source and destination IP address
       Explanation:

       IP is a Layer 3 protocol. Layer 3 devices can open the Layer 3 header to inspect the Layer 3 header which contains IP-related information including the source and destination IP addresses.

109. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

     

     • subnet mask
     • DNS address
     • host IP address
     • default gateway address
       Explanation:

       When a 255.255.255.224 subnet mask is used, the first three bits of the last octet are part of the network portion for an IPv4 address in the subnet. For the 192.168.5.96/27 network, valid host addresses are 192.168.5.97 through 192.168.5.126. The default gateway address is for the Layer 3 device on the same network and it must contain an IP address within the valid IP address range.

110. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

     • to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
     • to identify the host address of the destination host
     • to identify faulty frames
     • to identify the network address of the destination network
       Explanation:

       ANDing allows us to identify the network address from the IP address and the network mask.

111. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)

     • 198.133.219.17
     • 192.168.1.245
     • 10.15.250.5
     • 128.107.12.117
     • 192.15.301.240
     • 64.104.78.227

112. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

     • loopback
     • link-local
     • multicast
     • global unicast
       Explanation:

       Link-local IPv6 addresses start with FE80::/10, which is any address from FE80:: to FEBF::. Link-local addresses are used extensively in IPv6 and allow directly connected devices to communicate with each other on the link they share.

113. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

     

     • There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
     • The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
     • There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
     • The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
     • This host does not have a default gateway configured.
       Explanation:

       The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

114. How many hosts are addressable on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?

     • 2
     • 6
     • 8
     • 14
     • 16
     • 254
       Explanation:

       The subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 is the same as /29. This means the network portion of the address is 29 of the 32 bits in the address. Only 3 bits remain for host bits. 2^3 = 8, but one of these addresses has to be used for the network number and one address must be used as the broadcast address to reach all of the hosts on this network. That leaves only 6 usable IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts in this network. Don’t forget that the default gateway must be one of these devices if this network is to communicate with other networks.

115. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of 192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a high school building. The largest network in this building has 100 devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the network number for the largest network, what would be the network number for the next largest network, which has 40 devices?

     

     • 192.168.10.0
     • 192.168.10.128
     • 192.168.10.192
     • 192.168.10.224
     • 192.168.10.240
       Explanation:

       The first thing to calculate is what IP addresses are used by the largest LAN. Because the LAN has 100 hosts, 7 bits must be left for host bits. This would be a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128 for the largest LAN (192.168.10.0/25). The IP addresses range from 192.168.10.0 through 192.168.10.127. 192.168.10.0 is the network number (all 0s in the host bits) and 192.168.10.127 is the broadcast for this Ethernet LAN (all 1s in the host bits). The next available IP address is the next network number – 192.168.10.128.

116. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)

     • when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
     • when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
     • when delivery overhead is not an issue
     • when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
     • when destination port numbers are dynamic
       Explanation:

       UDP is a stateless protocol, which means that neither device on either end of the conversation must keep track of the conversation. As a stateless protocol, UDP is used as the Layer 4 protocol for applications that need speedy (best-effort) delivery. An example of such traffic is the transport of digitized voice or video.

117. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure communication and connectivity with a remote network device?

     • timing and synchronization
     • destination and source port numbers
     • destination and source physical addresses
     • destination and source logical network addresses
       Explanation:

       The destination and source port numbers are used to identify exactly which protocol and process is requesting or responding to a request.

118. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?

     • three-way handshake
     • socket pair
     • two-way handshake
     • sliding window
       Explanation:

       TCP uses windows to attempt to manage the rate of transmission to the maximum flow that the network and destination device can support while minimizing loss and retransmissions. When overwhelmed with data, the destination can send a request to reduce the of the window. This congestion avoidance is called sliding windows.

119. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

     • UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
     • UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
     • UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
     • UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
     • UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
     • UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
       Explanation:

       UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic transport layer functions. It has much lower overhead than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does not offer the sophisticated retransmission, sequencing, and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.

120. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-to-peer network where a file is being shared between two computers? (Choose two.)

     • client
     • master
     • server
     • slave
     • transient
       Explanation:

       In a peer-to-peer (P2P) network, two or more computers are connected and can share resources without the use of a dedicated server. The computer that has the file acts as a server for the device (the client) that requests the file.​

121. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

     • to request an HTML page from a web server
     • to send error information from a web server to a web client
     • to upload content to a web server from a web client
     • to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
       Explanation:

       There are three common HTTP message types:

       1. GET – used by clients to request data from the web server
       2. POST – used by clients to upload data to a web server
       3. PUT – used by clients to upload data to a web server

122. When planning for network growth, where in the network should packet captures take place to assess network traffic?

     • on as many different network segments as possible
     • only at the edge of the network
     • between hosts and the default gateway
     • only on the busiest network segment
       Explanation:

       Because some types of traffic will be only on specific network segments, packet captures for analysis should be performed on as many segments as possible.

123. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

     

     • Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
     • A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
     • A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
     • The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
       Explanation:

       In the output of the ping command, an exclamation mark (!) indicates a response was successfully received, a period (.) indicates that the connection timed out while waiting for a reply, and the letter “U” indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to the destination and sent an ICMP destination unreachable message back to the source.

124. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

     • Question
       
     • Answer
       
       Explanation:

       A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.

125. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

     • Question
       
     • Answer
       
       Explanation:

       Copper Cables – horizontal cabling structure and desktop PCs in offices in an enterprise
       Fiber optic – backbone cabling in an enterprise and long-haul networks
       Wireless – coffee shops and waiting rooms in a hospital