Ответы 1 финальный экзамен ccna 1

Last Updated on December 12, 2022 by

Cisco Netacad ITN Version 7.00 CCNA 1 v7 Final Exam Answers 2021 2022 2023 – Introduction to Networks

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ITN (Version 7.00 & v7.02) – ITNv7 Final Exam Answers 2021 2022 2023 Full 100%

1. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

   • Telnet
   • SSH
   • IMAP
   • FTP

2. Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) —> Case A

   • • handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
     • places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
     • implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
     • adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
     • applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

   • Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) —> Case B

     • adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
     • integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
     • handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
     • implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
     • enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

   • Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) —> Case C

     • implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
     • handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
     • adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data
     • places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
     • implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame

3. A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

   • Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.
   • Power cycle the device.
   • Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter.
   • Exit global configuration mode.
   • Reboot the device.

     Answers Explanation & Hints:

     While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit ,press Enter , and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.

4. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

   • The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.
   • The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
   • Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
   • The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

     Answers Explanation & Hints:

     The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

5. What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

   • 2001:DA48::/64​
   • 2001::/64
   • 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​
   • 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64​

     Explanation:

6. A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

   • It must send an ICMPv6 Router Solicitation message to determine what default gateway it should use.
   • It must send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message to request the address of the DNS server.
   • It must send a DHCPv6 REQUEST message to the DHCPv6 server to request permission to use this address.
   • It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.

     Explanation:

     Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

7. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

   • FE80::/10
   • FDEE::/7​
   • FF00::/8​
   • FEC0::/10​

     Explanation:

     Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

8. What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

   • It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
   • It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.
   • It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.
   • It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

9. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

   • mobility options
   • security
   • interference
   • coverage area
   • packet collision
   • extensive cabling

     Explanation:

     The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

10. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

    

    • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
    • The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
    • The wrong type of connector is being used.
    • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

11. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

    • EMI
    • signal attenuation
    • crosstalk
    • RFI​
    • extended length of cabling

      Explanation:

      EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.

12. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

    • TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
    • The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
    • The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
    • UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
    • The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
    • The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.

      Explanation:

      Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

13. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

    

14. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

    • netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
    • arp -a
    • tracert
    • ping
    • ipconfig
    • nslookup
    • telnet

      Explanation:

      The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.

15. What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

    • speed and duplex settings
    • MAC addresses
    • next-hop addresses
    • interface descriptions
    • IP addresses
    • Layer 1 statuses

      Explanation:

      The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.

16. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.128

17. Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

    • transport layer error check field
    • error correction process field
    • flow control field
    • User Datagram Protocol field
    • frame check sequence field

18. What is a function of the data link layer?

    • provides delivery of data between two applications
    • provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
    • provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
    • provides the formatting of data

19. What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

    • After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
    • A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
    • All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
    • The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
    • Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
    • A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

20. What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

    • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
    • malicious software or code running on an end device
    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • the use of stolen credentials to access private data

21. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

    • end-device installation
    • media selection
    • message encoding
    • delivery options
    • connector specifications
    • message size

22. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

    • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
    • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
    • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
    • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.

      Explanation:

      When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.

23. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

    

    • The entire command, configure terminal , must be used.
    • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
    • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
    • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal , or a shortened version such as config t , must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.

24. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

    

    • This host does not have a default gateway configured.
    • There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
    • There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
    • The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

      Explanation:

      The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

25. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

    • retransmits packets if errors occur
    • guarantees delivery of packets
    • does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection
    • operates independently of the network media
    • re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

      Explanation:

      The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.

26. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

    • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
    • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
    • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
    • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
    • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.

27. Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

    • spam
    • virus
    • worm
    • phishing

      Explanation:

28. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

    • automation
    • authorization
    • accounting
    • authentication

      Explanation:

      After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

29. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

    • loss of light over long distances
    • low-quality cable or connectors
    • low-quality shielding in cable
    • installing cables in conduit
    • improper termination

30. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

    • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
    • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
    • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
    • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

      Explanation:

      The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

31. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?

    • ​Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​
    • The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
    • It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.​
    • All router interfaces will be automatically activated.

32. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

    • POP
    • DNS
    • IP
    • TCP
    • Ethernet
    • UDP

33. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
    What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

    • integrity
    • scalability
    • quality of service
    • fault tolerance
    • powerline networking
    • security

34. Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

    

    • open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0
    • open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one
    • nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network
    • remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0

      Explanation:

      When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).

35. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

    • transport
    • application
    • network
    • session
    • data link
    • presentation

      Explanation:

36. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

    

    Explanation:

    Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are located in the block 169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.

37. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

    • strengthening of a signal by a networking device
    • leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
    • loss of signal strength as distance increases
    • time for a signal to reach its destination

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal attenuation.

38. Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

    • Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.
    • Perform the capture on different network segments.
    • Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.
    • Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.
    • Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.

      Explanation:

      Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

    

    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.100.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
    • Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-cd
      Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb
      Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.99
      Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

40. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

    • 192.168.1.32/27
    • 192.168.1.32/28
    • 192.168.1.64/29
    • 192.168.1.64/26

      Explanation:

      For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

41. What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

    • A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.
    • The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.
    • Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.
    • All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.
    • The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.

42. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

    • to enable the switch to be managed remotely
    • to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs
    • to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
    • to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

43. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

    • It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.
    • It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
    • It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
    • It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

      Explanation:

      The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

44. Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

    • The Destination Address field is new in IPv6.
    • The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
    • The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.
    • The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.
    • The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

45. Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

    • NAT will impact negatively on switch performance.
    • NAT causes routing tables to include more information.
    • NAT improves packet handling.
    • NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.
    • NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.
    • NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

46. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)

    

    Explanation:

    A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.

47. What service is provided by HTTP?

    • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
    • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
    • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
    • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

48. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

    • Telnet
    • FTP
    • SSH
    • DHCP

49. What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

    • Implement strong passwords.
    • Update the operating system and other application software.
    • Install and update antivirus software.
    • Implement RAID.
    • Implement a VPN.
    • Implement network firewalls.

      Explanation:

50. An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

    • Configure the IP domain name on the router.
    • Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.
    • Configure DNS on the router.
    • Generate the SSH keys.
    • Generate two-way pre-shared keys.
    • Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.

      Explanation:

      There are four steps to configure SSH support on a Cisco router:
      Step 1: Set the domain name.
      Step 2: Generate one-way secret keys.
      Step 3: Create a local username and password.
      Step 4: Enable SSH inbound on a vty line.

51. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

    • It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
    • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
    • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
    • It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
    • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

52. Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)

    

53. When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

    • fast-forward
    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free

54. What are proprietary protocols?

    • protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
    • protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
    • a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite
    • protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

      Explanation:

      Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

55. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

    • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
    • A company can monopolize the market.
    • It encourages competition and promotes choices.
    • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.

      Explanation:

      A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

56. Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

    • email
    • file
    • web
    • DNS

      Explanation:

57. Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

    

    Explanation:

    Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

58. A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:

    IP phones – 22 addresses
    PCs – 20 addresses needed
    Printers – 2 addresses needed
    Scanners – 2 addresses needed

    The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252

      Explanation:

59. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

    

    • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
    • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
    • IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1
    • IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
    • IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76

      Explanation:

60. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

    

    • 158
    • 200
    • 224
    • 88
    • 72

      Explanation:

61. What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

    • 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
    • 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

62. Which information does the show startup-config command display?​

    • the IOS image copied into RAM
    • the bootstrap program in the ROM
    • the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
    • the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

63. Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)

    

64. What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

    • accessing the media
    • data encapsulation
    • logical addressing
    • error detection
    • frame delimiting

65. Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

    

66. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • store-and-forward switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • cut-through switching
    • borderless switching

67. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

    • IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
    • POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
    • Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.
    • When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.

      Explanation:

68. A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

    • point-to-point
    • client-based
    • peer-to-peer (P2P)
    • master-slave

      Explanation:

69. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.0

70. Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

    • ZigBee
    • 5G
    • Wi-Fi
    • LoRaWAN

71. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

    • ability to to carry digitized voice
    • 3-way handshake
    • default window size
    • connectionless communication
    • port numbering
    • use of checksum

      Explanation:

72. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

    • DHCP
    • SMTP
    • TFTP
    • DNS

73. What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

    • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
    • Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
    • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
    • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

74. What characteristic describes antispyware?

    • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
    • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

75. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:

    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

    • 255.255.255.240
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252

      Explanation:

76. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

    

    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.192
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.240

77. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?

    

    • ARP
    • DNS
    • DHCP
    • ICMP

78. Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

    • web
    • peer to peer
    • file transfer
    • video
    • voice

79. Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)

    

80. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

    

    • only hosts A, B, C, and D
    • only router R1
    • only hosts A, B, and C
    • only hosts B and C
    • only hosts B, C, and router R1
    • only host D

      Explanation:

81. Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

    • Differentiated Services
    • Fragment Offset
    • Header Length
    • Time-to-Live

82. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

    

    • R2: S0/0/1
    • R1: G0/0
    • R2: S0/0/0
    • R1: S0/0/0

83. Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)​

    • Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S .
    • The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.​
    • If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table.
    • The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface.
    • If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S .
    • It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.

84. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

    • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
    • financial transactions, audio conference, web page
    • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
    • audio conference, web page, financial transactions

      Explanation:

85. What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?​

    • All router interfaces will be automatically activated.
    • Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​
    • The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
    • It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.​

86. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

    

    • only application, Internet, and network access layers
    • only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
    • application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
    • only application and Internet layers
    • application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
    • only Internet and network access layers

      Explanation:

87. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

    • The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
    • The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
    • The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.
    • The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

      Explanation:

88. What characteristic describes adware?

    • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
    • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
    • the use of stolen credentials to access private data
    • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

89. Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)

    

90. What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

    • to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination
    • to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
    • to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward
    • to end communication when data transmission is complete

91. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

    • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors
    • twisting the wires together into pairs
    • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
    • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

      Explanation:

      To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

92. A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

    • Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
    • Fiber optic cabling requires specific grounding to be immune to EMI.
    • Fiber optic cabling is susceptible to loss of signal due to RFI.
    • Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling.
    • Fiber optic cable is able to withstand rough handling.

93. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

    • syslog records and messages
    • debug output and packet captures
    • network configuration files
    • the network performance baseline

94. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

    • ipconfig /displaydns
    • nslookup
    • tracert
    • ping

95. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

    • SSH
    • FTP
    • Telnet
    • DNS

96. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?​

    

    • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.​
    • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​
    • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​
    • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.​
    • PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.

      Explanation:

      When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

97. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)

    

98. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

    • all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link​
    • all IPv6 DHCP servers​
    • all IPv6 enabled devices across the network​
    • all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​

99. What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

    • subnet ID
    • global routing prefix
    • interface ID
    • subnet mask
    • broadcast address

100. What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

     • It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
     • It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
     • It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
     • It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.

101. Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?

     • Trojan horse
     • brute-force attack
     • DoS
     • buffer overflow

       Explanation:

       A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

102. What service is provided by HTTPS?

     • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
     • Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
     • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
     • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

103. Match the characteristic to the category. (Not all options are used.)

     

104. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

     

     • 172.168.10.65
     • 172.168.10.99
     • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
     • CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
     • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
     • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

105. Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

     • Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
     • A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
     • Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.
     • Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
     • Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.

106. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

     

     • Two devices are attached to the switch.
     • The default SVI has been configured.
     • The switch can be remotely managed.
     • Two physical interfaces have been configured.
     • Passwords have been configured on the switch.
     • One device is attached to a physical interface.

107. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

     • when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
     • when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
     • when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
     • when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
     • when the RTT value reaches zero

       Explanation:

       When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.

108. What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)

     • carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts
     • directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks
     • providing dedicated end-to-end connections
     • placing data on the network medium
     • providing end devices with a unique network identifier

109. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

     • 255.255.255.224
     • 255.255.255.240
     • 255.255.255.192
     • 255.255.255.128

110. What characteristic describes spyware?

     • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
     • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
     • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
     • the use of stolen credentials to access private data

111. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

     • pinouts
     • tensile strength of plastic insulator
     • cable lengths
     • connector types
     • cost per meter (foot)
     • connector color

112. Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

113. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

     • attached Ethernet cable
     • TCP/IP protocol stack
     • IP address
     • RJ-45 port
     • MAC address

114. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

     • AUX
     • Telnet
     • SSH
     • Console

115. A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

     • the network domain of the destination host
     • the MAC address of the default gateway
     • the IP address of the default gateway
     • the MAC address of the destination host

116. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

     • route print
     • show ip route
     • netstat -r
     • netstat -s
     • tracert

       Answers Explanation & Hints:

       On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

117. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)

     

118. Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)

     

     

     Explanation:

     Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
     Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
     Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
     Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

119. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

     • The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.
     • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.
     • The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.
     • The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC.

       Explanation:

       The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

120. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

     • DNS
     • HTTP
     • DHCP
     • SMTP

121. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

     • source port number
     • HTTP server
     • source MAC address
     • DNS server
     • default gateway

122. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

     • CSMA/CD
     • priority ordering
     • CSMA/CA
     • token passing

123. What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

     • Router Advertisement
     • Destination Unreachable
     • Neighbor Solicitation
     • Route Redirection
     • Host Confirmation
     • Time Exceeded

124. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

     • 4096
     • 256
     • 512
     • 1024

125. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

     • 255.255.255.224
     • 255.255.255.128
     • 255.255.255.240
     • 255.255.255.192
     • 255.255.255.0

126. A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in the ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

     • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
     • It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.
     • It will send the frame and use the device MAC address as the destination.
     • It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
     • It will send an ARP request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

127. What characteristic describes a virus?

     • the use of stolen credentials to access private data
     • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
     • malicious software or code running on an end device
     • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

128. A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

     • access
     • DoS
     • Trojan horse
     • reconnaissance

129. What service is provided by POP3?

     • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
     • Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
     • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
     • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

130. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

     • ipconfig
     • show interfaces
     • ping
     • show ip interface brief

131. Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

     

     • 10.18.10.224/27
     • 10.18.10.208/28
     • 10.18.10.200/27
     • 10.18.10.200/28
     • 10.18.10.224/28

       Answers Explanation & Hints:

       Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

132. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

     • DNS
     • DHCP
     • POP3
     • SMTP

133. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?

     • transport
     • application
     • network access
     • internet

134. What characteristic describes identity theft?

     • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
     • the use of stolen credentials to access private data
     • software that identifies fast-spreading threats
     • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

135. What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)

     • intrusion prevention systems
     • antivirus software
     • antispyware
     • strong passwords
     • virtual private networks

136. What service is provided by DNS?

     • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
     • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
     • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
     • Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

137. Which wireless technology has low-power and low-data rate requirements making it popular in IoT environments?

     • Bluetooth
     • Zigbee
     • WiMAX
     • Wi-Fi

       Answers Explanation & Hints:

       Zigbee is a specification used for low-data rate, low-power communications. It is intended for applications that require short-range, low data-rates and long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and Internet of Things (IoT) environments such as wireless light switches and medical device data collection.

138. What characteristic describes a VPN?

     • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications
     • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
     • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network
     • software that identifies fast-spreading threats

139. A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

     • 255.255.255.192
     • 255.255.255.248
     • 255.255.255.240
     • 255.255.255.224

140. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

     • switch the packet to the directly connected interface
     • discard the traffic after consulting the route table
     • look up the next-hop address for the packet
     • analyze the destination IP address

141. What service is provided by BOOTP?

     • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
     • Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
     • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
     • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

142. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

     • DHCP
     • FTP
     • TFTP
     • DNS

143. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

     

144. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

     • tracert
     • netstat
     • nslookup
     • ipconfig

       Explanation:

145. What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

     • echo requests
     • router solicitations
     • router advertisements
     • neighbor advertisements
     • echo replies
     • neighbor solicitations

146. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for the default gateway. Which network devices will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

     

     • only hosts A, B, C, and D
     • only hosts A, B, and C
     • only host D
     • only hosts B, C, and router R1
     • only router R1
     • only hosts B and C

147. Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

     • integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
     • places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
     • implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection
     • applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame
     • enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

148. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

     • The default gateway is not operational.
     • The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
     • The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.
     • Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

149. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

     • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
     • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
     • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
     • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.

       Answers Explanation & Hints:

150. Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)

     

     Answers Explanation & Hints:

     Application filters prevent access based on Layer 4 port numbers.
     Packet filters prevent access based on IP or MAC address.
     URL filters prevent access to web site URLs or content.
     Stateful packet inspection prevents unsolicited incoming sessions.
     Network address translators translate internal IP addresses to to outside IP addresses and do not prevent network attacks.

151. What service is provided by SMTP?

     • Allows remote access to network devices and servers.
     • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.
     • Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.
     • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

152. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

     • SSH
     • DNS
     • DHCP
     • TFTP

• 
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New Version:  Final Exam Answers v6.0

1. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
   • a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
   • a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
   • a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users
   • a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure*
2. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
   • financial transactions, audio conference, web page
   • audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
   • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
   • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
   • 
     
3. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
   • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
   • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.*
   • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
   • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
4. What is the function of the shell in an OS?
   • It interacts with the device hardware.
   • It interfaces between the users and the kernel.*
   • It provides dedicated firewall services.
   • It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
5. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?
   • a console connection
   • an AUX connection
   • a Telnet connection
   • an SSH connection*
6. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?
   • The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*
   • The command syntax is wrong.
   • The subnet mask information is incorrect.
   • The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.
7. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
   • to restart the ping process
   • to interrupt the ping process*
   • to exit to a different configuration mode
   • to allow the user to complete the command
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
   
   • letmein
   • secretin
   • linevtyin
   • lineconin*
9. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
   • FastEthernet0/1
   • VLAN 1*
   • vty 0
   • console 0
10. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?
    • TCP*
    • IP
    • HTTP
    • Ethernet
11. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
    • A company can monopolize the market.
    • The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
    • An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
    • It encourages competition and promotes choices.*
12. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
    • It assists in protocol design. *
    • It speeds up packet delivery.
    • It prevents designers from creating their own model.
    • It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.*
    • It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
13. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
    • data link
    • network*
    • physical
    • session
    • transport*
14. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
    • bits
    • data
    • frame
    • packet
    • segment*
15. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
16. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
    • presentation layer
    • network layer
    • physical layer*
    • data link layer
17. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
    • console
    • rollover
    • crossover
    • straight-through**
18. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network *
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
19. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
    • cancellation*
    • cladding
    • immunity to electrical hazards
    • woven copper braid or metallic foil
20. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
    • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
    • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
    • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
    • It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
    • It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.*
21. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
    • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
    • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
    • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.*
    • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
22. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?
    • mesh
    • partial mesh*
    • hub and spoke
    • point-to-point
23. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
    • CSMA/CD
    • priority ordering
    • CSMA/CA*
    • token passing
24. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
    • error correction through a collision detection method
    • session control using port numbers
    • data link layer addressing*
    • placement and removal of frames from the media
    • detection of errors through CRC calculations *
    • delimiting groups of bits into frames*
    • conversion of bits into data signals
25. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
    • It will discard the frame.*
    • It will forward the frame to the next host.
    • It will remove the frame from the media.
    • It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
26. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
    • store-and-forward switching
    • fast-forward switching*
    • CRC switching
    • fragment-free switching*
    • QOS switching
27. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
    • building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
    • using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*
    • forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
    • utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*
    • examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
    • cut-through switching
    • store-and-forward switching*
    • fragment-free switching
    • fast-forward switching
29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
    
    • DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
    • 172.168.10.99
    • CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
    • 172.168.10.65
    • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*
    • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?
    • destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address*
    • destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
    • destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
    • destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
31. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
    • source and destination MAC
    • source and destination application protocol
    • source and destination port number
    • source and destination IP address*
32. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
    • performing error detection
    • routing packets toward the destination *
    • encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*
    • placement of frames on the media
    • collision detection
33. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?
    
    • subnet mask
    • DNS address
    • host IP address
    • default gateway address*
34. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?
    • to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
    • to identify the host address of the destination host
    • to identify faulty frames
    • to identify the network address of the destination network*
35. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
    • to store the routing table
    • to retain contents when power is removed *
    • to store the startup configuration file*
    • to contain the running configuration file
    • to store the ARP table
36. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.
    • The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.
    • The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*
37. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
    • 192.0.2.199
    • 198.51.100.201
    • 203.0.113.211*
    • 209.165.201.223
38. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
    • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
    • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. *
    • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. *
    • Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
    • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
    • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
39. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
    • 10.0.0.0/8*
    • 64.100.0.0/14
    • 127.16.0.0/12
    • 172.16.0.0/12*
    • 192.31.7.0/24
    • 192.168.0.0/16*
40. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?
    • It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.*
    • It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
    • It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
    • It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.
    • It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.
41. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
    • 2001:0:abcd::1
    • 2001:0:0:abcd::1*
    • 2001::abcd::1
    • 2001:0000:abcd::1
    • 2001::abcd:0:1
42. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
    • FEC0::/10
    • FDEE::/7
    • FE80::/10*
    • FF00::/8
43. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
    • 198.133.219.17*
    • 192.168.1.245
    • 10.15.250.5
    • 128.107.12.117*
    • 192.15.301.240
    • 64.104.78.227 *
44. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
    
    • There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
    • The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
    • There are 4 hops b**etween this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
    • The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
    • This host does not have a default gateway configured.
45. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
    • loopback
    • link-local*
    • multicast
    • global unicast
46. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?
    • 254
    • 190
    • 192
    • 62*
    • 64
47. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128*
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
48. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
    Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
    Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
    Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
    What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.240*
    • 255.255.255.248
    • 255.255.255.252
49. How many hosts are addressable on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?
    • 2
    • 6*
    • 8
    • 14
    • 16
    • 254
50. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
    • 192.168.1.64/26*
    • 192.168.1.32/27
    • 192.168.1.32/28
    • 192.168.1.64/29
51. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?
    • 255.255.255.0
    • 255.255.255.128
    • 255.255.255.192*
    • 255.255.255.224
    • 255.255.255.240
52. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)
    • default window size
    • connectionless communication
    • port numbering*
    • 3-way handshake
    • ability to to carry digitized voice
    • use of checksum*
53. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
    • to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
    • to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
    • to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
    • to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application*
    • to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
54. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of 192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a high school building. The largest network in this building has 100 devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the network number for the largest network, what would be the network number for the next largest network, which has 40 devices?
    
    • 192.168.10.0
    • 192.168.10.128*
    • 192.168.10.192
    • 192.168.10.224
    • 192.168.10.240
55. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?
    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.
56. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)
    • when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
    • when a faster delivery mechanism is needed*
    • when delivery overhead is not an issue
    • when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data*
    • when destination port numbers are dynamic
57. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure communication and connectivity with a remote network device?
    • timing and synchronization
    • destination and source port numbers*
    • destination and source physical addresses
    • destination and source logical network addresses
58. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?
    • three-way handshake
    • socket pair
    • two-way handshake
    • sliding window*
59. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
    • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
    • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
    • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*
    • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
60. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?
    • the destination IP address
    • the destination port number*
    • the source IP address
    • the source port number
61. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
    • to identify missing segments at the destination *
    • to reassemble the segments at the remote location*
    • to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
    • to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
    • to determine if the packet changed during transit
62. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
    • compression*
    • addressing
    • encryption*
    • session control
    • authentication
63. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
    • UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.*
    • UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
    • UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection. *
    • UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.*
    • UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
    • UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
64. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?
    • wireless networking
    • social networking without the Internet
    • network printing using a print server
    • resource sharing without a dedicated server*
65. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
    • tracert
    • ipconfig
    • netstat
    • nslookup*
66. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?
    • www.cisco.com
    • cisco.com
    • .com*
    • root.cisco.com
67. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
    • The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
    • The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
    • The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.*
    • The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
68. When planning for network growth, where in the network should packet captures take place to assess network traffic?
    • on as many different network segments as possible*
    • only at the edge of the network
    • between hosts and the default gateway
    • only on the busiest network segment
69. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?
    • FTP
    • HTTP
    • DHCP*
    • ICMP
    • SNMP
70. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
    • malware that was written to look like a video game*
    • malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
    • malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
    • malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
71. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
    • exec-timeout 30
    • service password-encryption
    • banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
    • login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*
72. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
    • show mac-address-table
    • show ip interface brief
    • show interfaces*
    • show running-config
73. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?
    • Syslog server
    • console line*
    • memory buffers
    • vty lines
74. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)
75. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)
    
76. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?
    
    • Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
    • A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*
    • A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
    • The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
77. A user is unable to reach the web site when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?
    • default gateway
    • DHCP
    • TCP/IP protocol stack
    • DNS *
78. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?
    • LAN
    • MAN
    • WAN*
    • WLAN
79. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
    • DSL*
    • dial-up
    • satellite
    • cell modem
    • cable modem
80. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?
    • by limiting the impact of a network failure
    • by allowing quick recovery from network failures
    • by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic*
    • by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users
81. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute command is issued?
    • the highest configured IP address on the router
    • the lowest configured IP address on the router
    • a loopback IP address
    • the IP address of the outbound interface*
82. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?
    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
83. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?
    
    • letmein
    • secretin*
    • lineconin
    • linevtyin
84. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)
85. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?
    • a console connection
    • an AUX connection
    • a Telnet connection
    • an SSH connection*
86. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
    • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
    • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
    • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
    • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*
87. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
    • internet*
    • transport
    • network access
    • session
88. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?
    • Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
    • Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
    • Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.*
    • Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
89. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?
    • host address
    • IP address
    • MAC address*
    • network address
    • k layer
90. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
    • requiring proper grounding connections
    • twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
    • wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
    • designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
    • avoiding sharp bends during installation
91. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?
    • An IP address is added.
    • The logical address is added.
    • The physical address is added.*
    • The process port number is added.
92. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
    • They are globally unique.*
    • They are routable on the Internet.
    • They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.*
    • MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
    • MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.
93. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?
    • drop the frame*
    • process the frame as it is
    • send an error message to the sending device
    • add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it
94. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
    • The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address. *
    • The destination address is unknown to the switch.*
    • The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
    • The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
    • The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
95. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
    • cut-through
    • store-and-forward
    • fragment-free
    • fast-forward*
96. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
    • netstat -s
    • route print*
    • show ip route
    • netstat -r*
    • tracert
97. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
    • packet forwarding*
    • microsegmentation
    • domain name resolution
    • path selection*
    • flow control
98. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?
    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010*
    • 11011010
99. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?
    • link-local*
    • unique local
    • site local
    • global unicast
100. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
     • stateful DHCPv6
     • SLAAC*
     • static IPv6 addressing
     • stateless DHCPv6
101. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?
     • It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.*
     • It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
     • It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
     • It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.
102. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
     • 256
     • 254
     • 62
     • 30*
     • 16
     • 32
103. What is the process of dividing a data stream into smaller pieces before transmission?
     • segmentation*
     • encapsulation
     • encoding
     • flow control
104. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?
     • DNS server address
     • subnet mask*
     • default gateway
     • DHCP server address
105. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-to-peer network where a file is being shared between two computers? (Choose two.)
     • client*
     • master
     • server*
     • slave
     • transient
106. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)
     • DNS*
     • Ethernet
     • IP
     • POP*
     • TCP
     • UDP
107. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?
     • Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
     • Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.*
     • A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server network.
     • A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server be present.
108. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?
     • to request an HTML page from a web server*
     • to send error information from a web server to a web client
     • to upload content to a web server from a web client
     • to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
109. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?
     • peer-to-peer
     • master-slave
     • client/server*
     • point-to-point
110. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?
     • DNS*
     • DHCP
     • FTP
     • SNMP
111. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
     • a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
     • a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
     • an increase in host-to-host ping response times*
     • a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
112. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
     • stateful packet inspection*
     • URL filtering
     • application filtering
     • packet filtering
113. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
     Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
     The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254*
     The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
114. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?terminal monitor*
     logging console
     logging buffered
     logging synchronous
115. Fill in the blank.
     During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast *message.
116. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?
     • DSL
     • dialup
     • satellite
     • leased line*
     • cable modem
117. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
     • to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
     • to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
     • to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
     • to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*
118. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?
     • reliability
     • scalability*
     • quality of service
     • accessibility
119. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
     • flash
     • ROM
     • NVRAM*
     • RAM
     • the configuration register
     • a TFTP server
120. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?
     
     • The banner message is too long.
     • The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*
     • The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
     • Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.
121. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
     • It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
     • It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.*
     • It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
     • It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
     • It provides a means to remotely manage a switch. *
     • It is associated with VLAN1 by default.*
122. A technician configures a switch with these commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1 
     SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 
     SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician configuring?
     • Telnet access
     • SVI*
     • password encryption
     • physical switchport access
123. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?
     • to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission*
     • to interpret information
     • to break large messages into smaller frames
     • to negotiate correct timing for successful communication

Older Version: CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers v5.1

NOTE: If you have the new question on this test, please comment Question and Multiple-Choice list in form below this article. We will update answers for you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website.

Version 6.0:

1. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?

• a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
• a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
• a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all users
• a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact of a failure

2. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

• financial transactions, audio conference, web page
• audio conference, financial transactions, web page
• audio conference, web page, financial transactions
• financial transactions, web page, audio conference

Explain:
QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

3. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

• End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
• Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
• Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
• Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

4. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

• It interacts with the device hardware.
• It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
• It provides dedicated firewall services.
• It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

Explain:
Most operating systems contain a shell and a kernel. The kernel interacts with the hardware and the shell interfaces between the kernel and the users.

5. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

6. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

• The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.
• The command syntax is wrong.
• The subnet mask information is incorrect.
• The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.

Explain:
The wrong mode of operation is being used. The CLI prompt indicates that the mode of operation is global configuration. IP addresses must be configured from interface configuration mode, as indicated by the SanJose(config-if)# prompt.

7. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

• to restart the ping process
• to interrupt the ping process
• to exit to a different configuration mode
• to allow the user to complete the command

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

• letmein
• secretin
• linevtyin
• lineconin

Explain:
Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

9. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

• FastEthernet0/1
• VLAN 1
• vty 0
• console 0

10. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?

• TCP
• IP
• HTTP
• Ethernet

Explain:
TCP is a Layer 4 protocol of the OSI model. TCP has several responsibilities in the network communication process. It divides large messages into smaller segments which are more efficient to send across the network. It also controls the size and rate of segments exchanged between clients and servers.

11. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

• A company can monopolize the market.
• The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
• An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
• It encourages competition and promotes choices.

12. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

• It assists in protocol design.
• It speeds up packet delivery.
• It prevents designers from creating their own model.
• It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

13. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

• data link
• network
• physical
• session
• transport

Explain:
The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI session layer (with the presentation layer) is included within the TCP/IP application layer.

14. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

• bits
• data
• frame
• packet
• segment

15. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
• the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
• the type of traffic that is crossing the network
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
• the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

Explain:
Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

16. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

• presentation layer
• network layer
• physical layer
• data link layer

Explain:
The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC encodes the frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This is the responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or radio waves.

17. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through

18. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
• the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
• the type of traffic that is crossing the network
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
• the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

Explain:
Throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and latency created by the network devices the data has to cross.

19. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

• cancellation
• cladding
• immunity to electrical hazards
• woven copper braid or metallic foil

Explain:
Cladding and immunization from electrical hazards are characteristics for fiber-optic cabling. A woven copper braid or metallic foil is used as a shield for the inner coaxial cable conductor. Cancellation is a property of UTP cabling where two wires are located adjacent to one another so each magnetic field cancels out the adjacent magnetic field.

20. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
• It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
• It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.

Explain:
Fiber-optic cabling supports higher bandwidth than UTP for longer distances. Fiber is immune to EMI and RFI, but costs more, requires more skill to install, and requires more safety precautions.

21. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

• It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
• It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
• It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
• It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

Explain:
The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the frame and identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.

22. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?

• mesh
• partial mesh
• hub and spoke
• point-to-point

23. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

• CSMA/CD
• priority ordering
• CSMA/CA
• token passing

Explain:
Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media access control.

24. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

• error correction through a collision detection method
• session control using port numbers
• data link layer addressing
• placement and removal of frames from the media
• detection of errors through CRC calculations
• delimiting groups of bits into frames
• conversion of bits into data signals

Explain:
Through the framing process, delimiters are used to identify the start and end of the sequence of bits that make up a frame. Data link layer addressing is added to enable a frame to be delivered to a destination node. A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) field is calculated on every bit and added to the frame. If the CRC value contained in the arriving frame is the same as the one the receiving node creates, the frame will be processed.

25. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

• It will discard the frame.
• It will forward the frame to the next host.
• It will remove the frame from the media.
• It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

Explain:
In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks every arriving frame to see if the destination MAC address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If there is no match, the device discards the frame. If there is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the next OSI layer.

26. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

• store-and-forward switching
• fast-forward switching
• CRC switching
• fragment-free switching
• QOS switching

Explain:
Store-and forward switching accepts the entire frame and performs error checking using CRC before forwarding the frame. Store-and-forward is often required for QOS analysis. Fast-forward and fragment-free are both variations of the cut-through switching method where only part of the frame is received before the switch begins to forward it.

27. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

• building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
• using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
• forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
• utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address
• examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

• cut-through switching
• store-and-forward switching
• fragment-free switching
• fast-forward switching

Explain:
Fast-forward and fragment-free switching are variations of cut-through switching, which begins to forward the frame before the entire frame is received.

29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

• DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
• 172.168.10.99
• CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
• 172.168.10.65
• BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
• AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

• destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
• destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
• destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
• destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address

Explain:
ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, works by mapping a destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address. The host knows the destination IPv4 address and uses ARP to resolve the corresponding destination MAC address.

31. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address

Explain:
IP is a Layer 3 protocol. Layer 3 devices can open the Layer 3 header to inspect the Layer 3 header which contains IP-related information including the source and destination IP addresses.

32. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)

• performing error detection
• routing packets toward the destination
• encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
• placement of frames on the media
• collision detection

33. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

• subnet mask
• DNS address
• host IP address
• default gateway address

Explain:
When a 255.255.255.224 subnet mask is used, the first three bits of the last octet are part of the network portion for an IPv4 address in the subnet. For the 192.168.5.96/27 network, valid host addresses are 192.168.5.97 through 192.168.5.126. The default gateway address is for the Layer 3 device on the same network and it must contain an IP address within the valid IP address range.

34. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

• to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
• to identify the host address of the destination host
• to identify faulty frames
• to identify the network address of the destination network

Explain:
ANDing allows us to identify the network address from the IP address and the network mask.

35. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

• to store the routing table
• to retain contents when power is removed
• to store the startup configuration file
• to contain the running configuration file
• to store the ARP table

Explain:
NVRAM is permanent memory storage, so the startup configuration file is preserved even if the router loses power.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

• The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.
• The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.
• The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.
• The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.

37. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

• 192.0.2.199
• 198.51.100.201
• 203.0.113.211
• 209.165.201.223

Explain:
Each section (octet) contains eight binary digits. Each digit represents a specific value (128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1). Everywhere there is a 1, the specific value is relevant. Add all relevant values in a particular octet to obtain the decimal value. For example binary 11001011 equals 203 in decimal.

38. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

• The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
• Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
• Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
• Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

Explain:
Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These types of messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer addresses. A multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.

39. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/14
• 127.16.0.0/12
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.31.7.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/16

40. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

• It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
• It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
• It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
• It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.
• It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.

Explain:
NAT64 is typically used in IPv6 when networks are being transitioned from IPv4 to IPv6. It allows the IPv6 networks to connect to IPv4 networks (such as the Internet), and works by translating the IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

41. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

• 2001:0:abcd::1
• 2001:0:0:abcd::1
• 2001::abcd::1
• 2001:0000:abcd::1
• 2001::abcd:0:1

Explain:
The IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001 in its most compressed format would be 2001:0:0:abcd::1. The first two hextets of zeros would each compress to a single zero. The three consecutive hextets of zeros can be compressed to a double colon ::. The three leading zeros in the last hextet can be removed. The double colon :: can only be used once in an address.

42. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

• FEC0::/10
• FDEE::/7
• FE80::/10
• FF00::/8

Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

43. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)

• 198.133.219.17
• 192.168.1.245
• 10.15.250.5
• 128.107.12.117
• 192.15.301.240
• 64.104.78.227

44. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

• There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
• The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
• There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.
• The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
• This host does not have a default gateway configured.

Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

45. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

• loopback
• link-local
• multicast
• global unicast

Explain:
Link-local IPv6 addresses start with FE80::/10, which is any address from FE80:: to FEBF::. Link-local addresses are used extensively in IPv6 and allow directly connected devices to communicate with each other on the link they share.

46. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

• 254
• 190
• 192
• 62
• 64

47. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

Explain:
The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally, 255.255.255.240 represents 4 host bits.

48. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

Explain:
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks. ​

49. How many hosts are addressable on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?

• 2
• 6
• 8
• 14
• 16
• 254

Explain:
The subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 is the same as /29. This means the network portion of the address is 29 of the 32 bits in the address. Only 3 bits remain for host bits. 2^3 = 8, but one of these addresses has to be used for the network number and one address must be used as the broadcast address to reach all of the hosts on this network. That leaves only 6 usable IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts in this network. Don’t forget that the default gateway must be one of these devices if this network is to communicate with other networks.

50. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

• 192.168.1.64/26
• 192.168.1.32/27
• 192.168.1.32/28
• 192.168.1.64/29

Explain:
For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

51. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

52. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

• default window size
• connectionless communication
• port numbering
• 3-way handshake
• ability to to carry digitized voice
• use of checksum

Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

53. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order

54. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of 192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a high school building. The largest network in this building has 100 devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the network number for the largest network, what would be the network number for the next largest network, which has 40 devices?

• 192.168.10.0
• 192.168.10.128
• 192.168.10.192
• 192.168.10.224
• 192.168.10.240

55. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

• Each subnet is the same size.
• The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
• Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
• Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

Explain:
In variable-length subnet masking, bits are borrowed to create subnets. Additional bits may be borrowed to create additional subnets within the original subnets. This may continue until there are no bits available to borrow.

56. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)

• when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
• when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
• when delivery overhead is not an issue
• when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
• when destination port numbers are dynamic

Explain:
UDP is a stateless protocol, which means that neither device on either end of the conversation must keep track of the conversation. As a stateless protocol, UDP is used as the Layer 4 protocol for applications that need speedy (best-effort) delivery. An example of such traffic is the transport of digitized voice or video.

57. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure communication and connectivity with a remote network device?

• timing and synchronization
• destination and source port numbers
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses

Explain:
The destination and source port numbers are used to identify exactly which protocol and process is requesting or responding to a request.

58. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?

• three-way handshake
• socket pair
• two-way handshake
• sliding window

Explain:
TCP uses windows to attempt to manage the rate of transmission to the maximum flow that the network and destination device can support while minimizing loss and retransmissions. When overwhelmed with data, the destination can send a request to reduce the of the window. This congestion avoidance is called sliding windows.

59. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

• A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
• A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.
• A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.
• A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

60. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?

• the destination IP address
• the destination port number
• the source IP address
• the source port number

Explain:
Each web browser client application opens a randomly generated port number in the range of the registered ports and uses this number as the source port number in the datagram that it sends to a server. The server then uses this port number as the destination port number in the reply datagram that it sends to the web browser. The PC that is running the web browser application receives the datagram and uses the destination port number that is contained in this datagram to identify the client application.

61. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

• to identify missing segments at the destination
• to reassemble the segments at the remote location
• to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
• to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
• to determine if the packet changed during transit

62. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

• compression
• addressing
• encryption
• session control
• authentication

63. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

• UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.
• UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
• UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
• UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
• UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
• UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

Explain:
UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic transport layer functions. It has much lower overhead than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does not offer the sophisticated retransmission, sequencing, and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.

64. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

• wireless networking
• social networking without the Internet
• network printing using a print server
• resource sharing without a dedicated server

Explain:
The peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model allows data, printer, and resource sharing without a dedicated server.​​

65. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

• tracert
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup

Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

66. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?

• www.cisco.com
• cisco.com
• .com
• root.cisco.com

Explain:
Top-level domains represent a country or type of organization, such as .com or .edu.

67. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?

• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

68. When planning for network growth, where in the network should packet captures take place to assess network traffic?

• on as many different network segments as possible
• only at the edge of the network
• between hosts and the default gateway
• only on the busiest network segment

Explain:
Because some types of traffic will be only on specific network segments, packet captures for analysis should be performed on as many segments as possible.

69. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

• FTP
• HTTP
• DHCP
• ICMP
• SNMP

Explain:
The DHCP protocol is used to request, issue, and manage IP addressing information. CSMA/CD is the access method used with wired Ethernet. ICMP is used to test connectivity. SNMP is used with network management and FTP is used for file transfer.

70. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

• malware that was written to look like a video game
• malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
• malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when launched
• malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target

Explain:
A Trojan horse is malicious code that has been written specifically to look like a legitimate program. This is in contrast to a virus, which simply attaches itself to an actual legitimate program. Viruses require manual intervention from a user to spread from one system to another, while a worm is able to spread automatically between systems by exploiting vulnerabilities on those devices.

71. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

• exec-timeout 30
• service password-encryption
• banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
• login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

Explain:
The login block-for command sets a limit on the maximum number of failed login attempts allowed within a defined period of time. If this limit is exceeded, no further logins are allowed for the specified period of time. This helps to mitigate brute-force password cracking since it will significantly increase the amount of time required to crack a password. The exec-timeout command specifies how long the session can be idle before the user is disconnected. The service password-encryption command encrypts the passwords in the running configuration. The banner motd command displays a message to users who are logging in to the device.

72. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a switch port?

• show mac-address-table
• show ip interface brief
• show interfaces
• show running-config

73. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?

• Syslog server
• console line
• memory buffers
• vty lines

Explain:
Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

74. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)

Question

Answer

user EXEC mode
limited number of basic monitoring commands
the first entrance intro the CLI of an IOS device

privileged EXEC mode
accessed by entering the enable command
identified by a prompt ending with the # character

global configuration mode
changes made affect the operation of the device as a whole
accessed by entering the configure terminal command

75. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all options are used.)

• FastEthernet0/0 -> packets with destination of 172.17.6.15
• FastEthernet0/1 -> packets with destination of 172.17.14.8
• FastEthernet1/0 -> packets with destination of 172.17.12.10
• FastEthernet1/1 -> packets with destination of 172.17.10.5
• Serial0/0/0 -> packets with destination of 172.17.8.20

76. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

• Connectivity to the remote device was successful.
• A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
• A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
• The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.

77. A user is unable to reach the web site when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?

• default gateway
• DHCP
• TCP/IP protocol stack
• DNS

Explain:
Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to translate a web address to an IP address. The address of the DNS server is provided via DHCP to host computers.​

78. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
• WLAN

Explain:
A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users and network resources over a limited geographic area using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN) serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area network (WAN) connects networks together over a large geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the globe.

79. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

• DSL
• dial-up
• satellite
• cell modem
• cable modem

80. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?

• by limiting the impact of a network failure
• by allowing quick recovery from network failures
• by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic
• by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users

Explain:
Quality of service (QoS), is a vital component of the architecture of a network. With QoS, network administrators can provide applications with predictable and measurable service guarantees through mechanisms that manage congested network traffic.

81. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute command is issued?

• the highest configured IP address on the router
• the lowest configured IP address on the router
• a loopback IP address
• the IP address of the outbound interface

Explain:
When sending an echo request message, a router will use the IP address of the exit interface as the source IP address. This default behavior can be changed by using an extended ping and specifying a specific source IP address.

82. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

Explain:
With the copy running-config startup-config command, the content of the current operating configuration replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded when the device is restarted.

83. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

• letmein
• secretin
• lineconin
• linevtyin

Explain:
Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

84. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)
Question

Answer

• physical topology diagram
  location of a desktop PC in a classroom
  path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets
• logical topology diagram
  IP address of a server

85. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

Explain:
A CLI session using Secure Shell (SSH) provides enhanced security because SSH supports strong passwords and encryption during the transport of session data. The other methods support authentication but not encryption.

86. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

• It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
• It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
• It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
• It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

Explain:
Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially typed will cause the IOS to complete the rest of the command.

87. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?

• internet
• transport
• network access
• session

Explain:
The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. Of these four layers, it is the internet layer that is responsible for routing messages. The session layer is not part of the TCP/IP model but is rather part of the OSI model.

88. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

• Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
• Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
• Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.
• Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

Explain:
When the data is traveling from the PC to the network, the transport layer sends segments to the internet layer. The internet layer sends packets to the network access layer, which creates frames and then converts the frames to bits. The bits are released to the network media.

89. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?

• host address
• IP address
• MAC address
• network address
• k layer

90. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

• requiring proper grounding connections
• twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
• wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
• designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
• avoiding sharp bends during installation

Explain:
In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire. Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel the crosstalk. The other options are effective measures to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI, but not crosstalk.

91. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

• An IP address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.

Explain:
The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination physical address. The trailer includes a CRC value in the Frame Check Sequence field to allow the receiving device to determine if the frame has been changed (has errors) during the transmission.

92. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

• They are globally unique.
• They are routable on the Internet.
• They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
• MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
• MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.

Explain:
An Ethernet MAC address is a 48-bit binary value expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. MAC addresses must be globally unique by design. MAC addresses are in flat structure and thus they are not routable on the Internet. Serial interfaces do not use MAC addresses.

93. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?

• drop the frame
• process the frame as it is
• send an error message to the sending device
• add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it

Explain:
Ethernet standards define the minimum frame size as 64 bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes is considered a “collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically discarded by receiving devices.

94. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)

• The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.
• The destination address is unknown to the switch.
• The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
• The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
• The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.

95. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

• cut-through
• store-and-forward
• fragment-free
• fast-forward

Explain:
Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after reading the destination MAC address, resulting in the lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding. Store-and-forward has the highest latency because it reads the entire frame before beginning to forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-forward are types of cut-through switching.

96. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

• netstat -s
• route print
• show ip route
• netstat -r
• tracert

Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –scommand is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

97. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• packet forwarding
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

98. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

• 10111010
• 11010101
• 11001010
• 11011010

Explain:
When converted, CA in hex is equivalent to 11011010 in binary. One way to do the conversion is one nibble at a time, C = 1100 and A = 1010. Combine the two nibbles gives 11001010.

99. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

• link-local
• unique local
• site local
• global unicast

Explain:
All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the interface as required.

100. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?

• stateful DHCPv6
• SLAAC
• static IPv6 addressing
• stateless DHCPv6

Explain:
Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of the network. From this information the PC can then create its own IPv6 global unicast address.

101. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

• It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
• It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
• It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
• It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.

Explain:
The address ::1 is an IPv6 loopback address. Using the command ping ::1 tests the internal IP stack to ensure that it is configured and functioning correctly. It does not test reachability to any external device, nor does it confirm that IPv6 addresses are properly configured on the host.

102. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

• 256
• 254
• 62
• 30
• 16
• 32

103. What is the process of dividing a data stream into smaller pieces before transmission?

• segmentation
• encapsulation
• encoding
• flow control

Explain:
Data streams would cause significant network congestion if they were transmitted as a single large stream of bits. To increase efficiency, data streams are segmented into smaller more manageable pieces which are then transmitted over the network.

104. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?

• DNS server address
• subnet mask
• default gateway
• DHCP server address

105. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-to-peer network where a file is being shared between two computers? (Choose two.)

• client
• master
• server
• slave
• transient

Explain:
In a peer-to-peer (P2P) network, two or more computers are connected and can share resources without the use of a dedicated server. The computer that has the file acts as a server for the device (the client) that requests the file.​

106. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

• DNS
• Ethernet
• IP
• POP
• TCP
• UDP

Explain:
The application layer is the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Application layer protocols include HTTP, DNS, HTML, TFTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and SMTP.

107. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?

• Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
• Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.
• A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server network.
• A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server be present.

Explain:
Data transfer speeds depend on a number of factors including the amount of traffic, the quality of service imposed, and the network media. Transfer speeds are not dependent on the network model type. File transfers can occur using the client-server model or the peer-to-peer model. A data transfer between a device acting in the client role and a device acting in the server role can occur in both peer-to-peer and client-server networks.

108. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

• to request an HTML page from a web server
• to send error information from a web server to a web client
• to upload content to a web server from a web client
• to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110

109. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book publisher?

• peer-to-peer
• master-slave
• client/server
• point-to-point

Explain:
In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model being used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-to-peer network does not have a dedicated server.

110. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?

• DNS
• DHCP
• FTP
• SNMP

Explain:
When a client attempts to connect to a website, the destination URL must be resolved to an IP address. To do this the client queries a Domain Name System (DNS) server.

111. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?

• a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
• a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
• an increase in host-to-host ping response times
• a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output

112. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?

• stateful packet inspection
• URL filtering
• application filtering
• packet filtering

Explain:
Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that incoming packets are actually legitimate responses to requests originating from hosts inside the network. Packet filtering can be used to permit or deny access to resources based on IP or MAC address. Application filtering can permit or deny access based on port number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny access based on URL or on keywords.

113. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?

• The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
• Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
• The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254
• The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.

Explain:
When a Windows PC cannot communicate with an IPv4 DHCP server, the computer automatically assigns an IP address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. Any other device on the same network that receives an address in the same range is reachable.​

114. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?

• terminal monitor
• logging console
• logging buffered
• logging synchronous

Explain:
Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

115. Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast message.

116. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

• DSL
• dialup
• satellite
• leased line
• cable modem

117. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

• to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
• to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
• to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
• to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

118. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

• reliability
• scalability
• quality of service
• accessibility

Explain:
Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new users and services, without impacting existing users and services. This ability to grow is known as scalability.

119. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

• flash
• ROM
• NVRAM
• RAM
• the configuration register
• a TFTP server

120. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

• The banner message is too long.
• The delimiting character appears in the banner message.
• The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
• Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console port.

121. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

• It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
• It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.
• It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
• It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
• It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
• It is associated with VLAN1 by default.

Explain:
Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). SVIs are created in software since there is no physical hardware associated with them. Virtual interfaces provide a means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using IP. Each switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-the-box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.

122. A technician configures a switch with these commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician configuring?

• Telnet access
• SVI
• password encryption
• physical switchport access

Explain:
For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual interface must be configured. This allows the switch to be managed remotely over the network.

123. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

• to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
• to interpret information
• to break large messages into smaller frames
• to negotiate correct timing for successful communication

124. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

• They are sent to a select group of hosts.
• They must be acknowledged.
• They are sent to a single destination.
• They are sent to all hosts on a network.

Explain:
Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication. Multicast messages are addressed to a specific multicast group.

125. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

• bring your own device
• video conferencing
• online collaboration
• cloud computing

126. True or False.
A dedicated server is not needed when implementing a peer-to-peer network.

• true
• false

127. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

• Internet
• intranet
• extranet
• extendednet

Explain:
The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected networks. Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an organization and is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization, employees, or others with authorization.​ Extranets provide secure and safe access to ​suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.

128. What subnet mask is required to support 512 subnets on networks 172.28.0.0/16?

• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.252.0

129. A DHCP server is used to IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 10.29.244.0/25. There are 19 printers on this network that need to use reserve static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP address in the pool are left to be assign to other hosts?

• 210
• 60
• 109
• 107
• 146

Version 5:

130. What is a function of the data link layer?

• provides the formatting of data
• provides for the exchange of data over a common local media
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications

131. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

• wiki
• e-mail
• weblog
• instant messaging

132. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

133. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

• flash memory
• NVRAM?
• RAM
• ROM
• a TFTP server?

134. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

135. Fill in the blank.
Port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023 are considered to be Well Known ports.

136. Fill in the blank.
ISOC, IANA, EIA, and IEEE represent standards organizations which help to promote and maintain an open Internet.

137. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

• The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
• The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
• The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
• The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

138. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
• WLAN

Explain:
A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users and network resources over a limited geographic area using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN) serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area network (WAN) connects networks together over a large geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the globe.

139. A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to accommodate? (Choose two.)

• SNMP
• instant messaging
• voice
• FTP
• video

140. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

• Copper Cables
  horizontal cabling structure
  desktop PCs in an enterprise office
• Fiber Optic
  backbone cabling in an enterprise
  long-haul networks
• Wireless
  guest access in a coffee shop
  waiting rooms in a hospital

Explain:
Copper Cables – horizontal cabling structure and desktop PCs in offices in an enterprise
Fiber optic – backbone cabling in an enterprise and long-haul networks
Wireless – coffee shops and waiting rooms in a hospital

141. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

• 0.0.0.0
• 0.0.0.1
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.1.1
• 255.255.255.255

142. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

ARP

• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT
• PPP

143. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two)

• ARP
• BOOTP
• ICMP
• IP
• PPP

144. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

• Request for Comments
• IRTF research papers
• protocol models
• IEEE standards

145. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

• IP address
• default gateway address
• MAC address
• logical address

146. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

• ARP, multicast
• DNS, unicast
• DNS, broadcast
• ARP, broadcast
• PING, multicast
• PING, broadcast

147. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

• The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
• The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
• The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

148. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

• It accepts frames from the physical media.
• It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
• It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
• It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.

149. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

• Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
• Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
• Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
• Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
• Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

150. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

• logical address
• physical address
• data
• error detection

151. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

• just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
• just the PC0 MAC address
• PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
• just the PC1 MAC address
• just the PC2 MAC address

152. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

• A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
• An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.
• A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
• A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

153. What is the purpose of the routing process?

• to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
• to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
• to convert a URL name into an IP address
• to provide secure Internet file transfer
• to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

154. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

• ARP
• DNS
• NAT
• SMB
• DHCP
• HTTP

155. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
• It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
• It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

156. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

157. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

• ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
• FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS​.
• ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
• RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
• NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.

158. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

• NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
• NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
• setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
• TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
• flash, ROM, setup mode

159. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

160. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

• 10.172.168.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.20.4.4
• 192.168.5.254
• 224.6.6.6

161. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 32

162. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

• to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
• to enable the router as an IPv6 router
• to permit only unicast packets on the router
• to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

163. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

• FEC0::/10?
• FDFF::/7?
• FEBF::/10?
• FF00::/8

164. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

• to inform routers about network topology changes
• to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
• to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
• to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

165. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

• The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
• The default gateway address in incorrect.
• The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
• The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

166. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

• random static addresses to improve security
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

167. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

• Site 1
• Site 2
• Site 3
• Site 4

168. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

• /62
• /64
• /66
• /68
• /70

169. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPOFFER
• DHCPREQUEST
• DHCPACK
• DHCPNACK

170. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

171. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

• 192.168.9.254
• 192.168.10.1
• 192.168.10.2
• 192.168.11.252
• 192.168.11.254

172. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

173. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

• broadcast SSID
• MAC filtering enabled
• WEP encryption enabled
• PSK authentication required
• default administrator password

174. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

175. Fill in the blank.
TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

176. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

• media
• wireless NIC
• custom adapter
• crossover cable
• wireless bridge
• wireless client software

177. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

178. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

179. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

180. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

• when a cellular telephone provides the service
• when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
• when a satellite dish is used
• when a regular telephone line is used

181. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

• audio conference, database, HTTP
• database, HTTP, audio conference
• audio conference, HTTP, database
• database, audio conference, HTTP

182. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

183. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

• Ctrl-Shift-X
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
• Ctrl-C

184. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

• HR Switch(config)#?
• Switch(config)#?
• HRSwitch(config)#?
• HR(config)#?
• Switch#

185. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

• the TCP/IP stack on a network host
• connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
• connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
• connectivity between two PCs on the same network
• physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

186. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

187. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

• switch
• hub
• router
• host

188. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
• the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
• the type of traffic that is crossing the network
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
• the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

189. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling

190. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

• It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
• End devices are connected together by a bus.
• It is easy to add and remove end devices.
• All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
• Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

191. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

• to determine the physical address of the sending device
• to verify the network layer protocol information
• to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
• to check the frame for possible transmission errors
• to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

192. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

• It initiates an ARP request.
• It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
• It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
• It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.

193. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

• the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
• the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

194. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

• stores routing tables
• allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
• maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
• holds ARP cache
• stores bootstrap program

195. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

• A console port is used for remote management of the router.
• A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
• Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
• Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

196. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

197. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

• private addresses
• public addresses
• multicast addresses
• experimental addresses

198. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

• 11
• 12
• 13
• 14

199. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.1.16/28
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.128/27
• 192.168.1.96/28
• 192.168.1.192/28

200. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

• /23
• /24
• /25
• /26

201. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

• Transmission Control Protocol
• Real-Time Transport Protocol
• Secure File Transfer Protocol
• Video over Internet Protocol

202. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

• to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
• to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
• to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
• to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

203. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

• The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
• The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
• An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
• An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

204. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

205. Fill in the blank.
Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex

206. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

207. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

208. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

• area A
• area B
• area C
• area D

209. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

• audio conference, financial transactions, web page
• financial transactions, web page, audio conference
• audio conference, web page, financial transactions
• financial transactions, audio conference, web page

Explain:
QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

210. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

211. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

• The configuration will be copied to flash.
• The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
• The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
• The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

212. What information does the loopback test provide?

• The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
• The device has end-to-end connectivity.
• DHCP is working correctly.
• The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
• The device has the correct IP address on the network.

213. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

• The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
• The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
• The switch drops the frame.
• The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

214. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
• 127.0.0.1
• 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

215. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

216. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

• adjacency tables
• MAC-address tables
• routing tables
• ARP tables
• forwarding information base (FIB)

217. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

• It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
• It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host
• It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
• It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

218. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

• The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
• The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
• The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
• The gateway of last resort was not configured.

219. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

220. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

221. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

• Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
• A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
• A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
• Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

222. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

• MAC address
• IP address
• kernel
• shell
• subnet mask

223. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

• It eliminates most address configuration errors.
• It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
• It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
• It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
• It reduces the burden on network support staff.

224. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

• 2001:DB8:BC15::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

225. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

226. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

227. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT.

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message isb ”winner”

228. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

• Packet Length
• Destination Address
• Flag
• Time-to-Live

229. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?

• 2001:db8:abc:1::1
• 2001:db8:abc:5::1
• 2001:db8:abc:5::2
• 2001:db8:abc:10::15

230. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

• Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
• Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
• CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.
• Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

231. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

• to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)
• to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses
• to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making
• to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

232. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

• It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.
• In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.
• When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.
• Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.

233. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

• Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.
• ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.
• ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.
• Both users must be on the same network.

234. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

• to ensure the fastest possible download speed
• because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
• because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
• because HTTP requires reliable delivery

235. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

• 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
• 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
• 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
• 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

236. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

• TTL field
• CRC field
• Hop Limit field
• Time Exceeded field

237. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

• port filtering
• stateful packet inspection
• URL filtering
• application filtering

238. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

• trace 10.1.1.5
• traceroute 10.1.1.5
• tracert 10.1.1.5
• ping 10.1.1.5

239. Fill in the blank.
To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be grounded correctly

240. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

• The cable insulation could be flammable.
• Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.
• Network cables could be exposed to water.
• The network cable could explode.

241. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

• a multimeter
• an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
• a cable tester
• an ohmmeter

242. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

• capacitance
• wire map
• inductance
• flexibility

243. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

• just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
• just the PC0 MAC address
• PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
• just the PC1 MAC address
• just the PC2 MAC address

244. Which function is provided by TCP?

• data encapsulation
• detection of missing packets
• communication session control
• path determination for data packets

245. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

• an ARP table
• a routing table
• the destination PC physical address
• a switching table

246. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

• an inband router interface
• a console port
• a serial WAN interface
• an AUX port

247. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• any line configuration mode
• privileged EXEC mode

248. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

249. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

• 2
• 21
• 250
• 306
• 2921

250. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

• IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
• A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.
• A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.
• Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

251. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

• 172.16.16.255
• 172.16.20.255
• 172.16.19.255
• 172.16.23.255
• 172.16.255.255

252. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

• 10.1.1.128/28
  10.1.1.144/28
  10.1.1.160/29
• 10.1.1.128/28
  10.1.1.144/28
  10.1.1.160/28
• 10.1.1.128/28
  10.1.1.140/28
  10.1.1.158/26
• 10.1.1.128/26
  10.1.1.144/26
  10.1.1.160/26
• 10.1.1.128/26
  10.1.1.140/26
  10.1.1.158/28

253. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

254. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

255. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?

• Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.
• Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.
• Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.
• Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

256. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

• It will remove encryption from all passwords.
• It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.
• It will not reverse any encryption.
• It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

257. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

258. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

• If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
• An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
• When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
• If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
• If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

259. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

• Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.
• A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.
• An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.
• An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.
• Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.

260. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

• 234.17.10.9
• 234.16.12.10
• 236.17.12.6
• 236.17.12.10

261. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

• ipconfig /all
• arp -a
• ipconfig /displaydns
• nslookup

262. Fill in the blank.
Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a Modular configuration.

263. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?

• 11
• 12
• 13
• 14

264. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

• When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the network.
• A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST message.
• The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.
• If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.

265. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

266. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can explain this difference? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic
• the type of data encapsulation in use
• the type of traffic
• the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
• the reliability of the network backbone

267. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPOFFER
• DHCPPREQUEST
• DHCPACK
• DHCPNACK

268. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

• letmein
• secretin
• lineconin
• linevtyin

Explain:
Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode.

269. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?

• 10
• 12
• 2
• 4
• 8

270. Question:

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is:
The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1

271. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?

• An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.
• An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.
• An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.
• An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.

272. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in the response segment to the client determined?

• The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence number in response to the client.
• The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back to the client.
• The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
• The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.

273. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?

• to identify host address and destination host;
• to identify network address of destination host;
• to identify faulty frames;
• to identify broadcast address of destination network;

274. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?

• no password at all;
• password of the lines are in clear;
• login password;
• ?

275. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

• message encapsulation
• flow control
• message encoding
• access method

276. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?

• to conserve IPv6 addresses
• to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
• to conserve IPv6 prefixes
• to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design

277. Which statement describes data throughput?

• It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
• It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.
• It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
• It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.

278. Fill in the blank. Use a number.

IPv4 multicast addresses are directly mapped to IEEE 802 (Ethernet) MAC addresses using the last ___4___ of the 28 available bits in the IPv4 multicast group address.

279. How could a faulty network device create a source of hazard for a user? (Choose two.)

• It could stop functioning.
• It could apply dangerous voltage to other pieces of equipment.
• It could explode.
• It could produce an unsafe electromagnetic field.
• It could apply dangerous voltage to itself.

280. What are three important considerations when planning the structure of an IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)

• preventing duplication of addresses
• providing and controlling access
• documenting the network
• monitoring security and performance
• conserving addresses
• implementing new services

281. What is the metric value that is used to reach the 10.1.1.0 network in the following routing table entry? D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0

• 24
• 90
• 05
• 2170112

282. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)

• VoIP
• DNS
• HTTP
• FTP
• POP3

New Questions (v6.0):

283. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

• It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.
• It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
• It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
• It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.

284. To what legacy address class does the address 10.0.0.0 belong?

• Class B
• Class D
• Class A
• Class C
• Class E

285. How many IPv4 addresses are available to be assigned to hosts on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?

• 16
• 14
• 8
• 254
• 6
• 2

286. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

• radio waves
• fiber
• microwave
• UTP

287. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

• EUI-64
• static
• SLAAC
• stateful DHCPv6

288. What is a characteristic of DNS?

• DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.
• DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations that are not within their zone.
• All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.
• DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with centralized servers.

289. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

• 2001:DB8:BC15
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12

290. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?

• Layer 2 next hops
• MAC address to IPv4 address mappings
• IP address to interface mappings
• the IP addresses of all neighboring routers

291. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?

• terminal monitor
• logging console
• logging buffered
• logging synchronous

Explain:
Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent to the console line by default. Sending these messages to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor command.

292. What is an example of a top-level domain?

• root.cisco.com
• http://www.cisco.com
• .com
• cisco.com

Explain:
Top-level domains represent a country or type of organization, such as .com or .edu.

293. Which protocol requires the establishment of a session between sender and receiver hosts prior to transmitting data?

• UDP
• TCP
• IP
• ICMP

294. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• POP
• DNS
• Ethernet

295. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

• It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.
• It just sends the datagrams.
• It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
• It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.

296. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

• They are sent to all hosts on a network.
• They must be acknowledged.
• They are sent to a select group of hosts.
• They are sent to a single destination.

297. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?

• FTP
• HTTP
• DNS
• SMTP

298. In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule, BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and LionShare be used?

• master-slave
• client-based
• peer-to-peer
• point-to-point

299. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 . The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

• The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP address.
• The subnet mask information is incorrect.
• The command syntax is wrong.
• The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.

300. Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.224

Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.